The present perfect usageDoes the present perfect imply an action finished in the past?New way of understanding the present perfect tenseIn the tense of present perfect, Are 'recent past' and 'hot news' the same?Does 'hot news' in present past tense contains 'recent past'?What category does the 'the recent perfect' belong to?Omitting articles when contrasting people or things with “and”Present Perfect Usage of “Think” for Recent PastPresent Perfect Usage of “Think” for Recent PastPresent perfect with a past temporal expressionPresent perfect tense and specific time expression?
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The present perfect usage
Does the present perfect imply an action finished in the past?New way of understanding the present perfect tenseIn the tense of present perfect, Are 'recent past' and 'hot news' the same?Does 'hot news' in present past tense contains 'recent past'?What category does the 'the recent perfect' belong to?Omitting articles when contrasting people or things with “and”Present Perfect Usage of “Think” for Recent PastPresent Perfect Usage of “Think” for Recent PastPresent perfect with a past temporal expressionPresent perfect tense and specific time expression?
According to the Cambridge grammar of the English language ( CGEL ) by Geoffrey. K. Pullum and Rodney Huddlestone, there are four different uses of the present perfect tense : the continuative, the experiental ( or existential ) perfect, the resultative perfect and
the perfect of recent past. ( 2002 :143-145 )
Not so long ago, I came across a grammar book, in which the present perfect tense was explained differently. It states that -" when we can not make a present tense sentence with a similar meaning, we do not normally use the present perfect ( even if we are giving " news " ). My question is - why can not we use the present perfect tense, to be more precise, the perfect of recent past when we are giving " news " ? For example : Granny hit me ! Why can not we say - Granny has hit me ? Especially if the impact of the hit is visible on the body ? Can we remember this as a rule of thumb ? Does it sound okay to you ?
grammar
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
add a comment |
According to the Cambridge grammar of the English language ( CGEL ) by Geoffrey. K. Pullum and Rodney Huddlestone, there are four different uses of the present perfect tense : the continuative, the experiental ( or existential ) perfect, the resultative perfect and the perfect of recent past. ( 2002 :143-145 )
Not so long ago, I came across a grammar book, in which the present perfect tense was explained differently. It states that -" when we can not make a present tense sentence with a similar meaning, we do not normally use the present perfect ( even if we are giving " news " ). My question is - why can not we use the present perfect tense, to be more precise, the perfect of recent past when we are giving " news " ? For example : Granny hit me ! Why can not we say - Granny has hit me ? Especially if the impact of the hit is visible on the body ? Can we remember this as a rule of thumb ? Does it sound okay to you ?
grammar
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
Perhaps this should be asked at ell.stackexchange.com ?? That is where learners of English ask questions.
– GEdgar
1 hour ago
add a comment |
According to the Cambridge grammar of the English language ( CGEL ) by Geoffrey. K. Pullum and Rodney Huddlestone, there are four different uses of the present perfect tense : the continuative, the experiental ( or existential ) perfect, the resultative perfect and the perfect of recent past. ( 2002 :143-145 )
Not so long ago, I came across a grammar book, in which the present perfect tense was explained differently. It states that -" when we can not make a present tense sentence with a similar meaning, we do not normally use the present perfect ( even if we are giving " news " ). My question is - why can not we use the present perfect tense, to be more precise, the perfect of recent past when we are giving " news " ? For example : Granny hit me ! Why can not we say - Granny has hit me ? Especially if the impact of the hit is visible on the body ? Can we remember this as a rule of thumb ? Does it sound okay to you ?
grammar
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
According to the Cambridge grammar of the English language ( CGEL ) by Geoffrey. K. Pullum and Rodney Huddlestone, there are four different uses of the present perfect tense : the continuative, the experiental ( or existential ) perfect, the resultative perfect and the perfect of recent past. ( 2002 :143-145 )
Not so long ago, I came across a grammar book, in which the present perfect tense was explained differently. It states that -" when we can not make a present tense sentence with a similar meaning, we do not normally use the present perfect ( even if we are giving " news " ). My question is - why can not we use the present perfect tense, to be more precise, the perfect of recent past when we are giving " news " ? For example : Granny hit me ! Why can not we say - Granny has hit me ? Especially if the impact of the hit is visible on the body ? Can we remember this as a rule of thumb ? Does it sound okay to you ?
grammar
grammar
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
asked 1 hour ago
BeqaBeqa
616414
616414
Perhaps this should be asked at ell.stackexchange.com ?? That is where learners of English ask questions.
– GEdgar
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Perhaps this should be asked at ell.stackexchange.com ?? That is where learners of English ask questions.
– GEdgar
1 hour ago
Perhaps this should be asked at ell.stackexchange.com ?? That is where learners of English ask questions.
– GEdgar
1 hour ago
Perhaps this should be asked at ell.stackexchange.com ?? That is where learners of English ask questions.
– GEdgar
1 hour ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
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The book you are referring to gives a summative assessment of Present Perfect far from the madding pedantic analysis. In the four differences you have mentioned from the authority, the recurring theme is that it has a present relevance. And exactly that's what your grammar book says. With the help of two negative sentences the writer affirms this relevance of present in present perfect. When this relationship with the present is gone, it becomes the thing of the past. Present perfect is at the threshold,— one step in the past, one step in present looking forward but no step further.
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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votes
The book you are referring to gives a summative assessment of Present Perfect far from the madding pedantic analysis. In the four differences you have mentioned from the authority, the recurring theme is that it has a present relevance. And exactly that's what your grammar book says. With the help of two negative sentences the writer affirms this relevance of present in present perfect. When this relationship with the present is gone, it becomes the thing of the past. Present perfect is at the threshold,— one step in the past, one step in present looking forward but no step further.
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
add a comment |
The book you are referring to gives a summative assessment of Present Perfect far from the madding pedantic analysis. In the four differences you have mentioned from the authority, the recurring theme is that it has a present relevance. And exactly that's what your grammar book says. With the help of two negative sentences the writer affirms this relevance of present in present perfect. When this relationship with the present is gone, it becomes the thing of the past. Present perfect is at the threshold,— one step in the past, one step in present looking forward but no step further.
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
add a comment |
The book you are referring to gives a summative assessment of Present Perfect far from the madding pedantic analysis. In the four differences you have mentioned from the authority, the recurring theme is that it has a present relevance. And exactly that's what your grammar book says. With the help of two negative sentences the writer affirms this relevance of present in present perfect. When this relationship with the present is gone, it becomes the thing of the past. Present perfect is at the threshold,— one step in the past, one step in present looking forward but no step further.
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
The book you are referring to gives a summative assessment of Present Perfect far from the madding pedantic analysis. In the four differences you have mentioned from the authority, the recurring theme is that it has a present relevance. And exactly that's what your grammar book says. With the help of two negative sentences the writer affirms this relevance of present in present perfect. When this relationship with the present is gone, it becomes the thing of the past. Present perfect is at the threshold,— one step in the past, one step in present looking forward but no step further.
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
answered 28 secs ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,991613
1,991613
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Perhaps this should be asked at ell.stackexchange.com ?? That is where learners of English ask questions.
– GEdgar
1 hour ago