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How can I improve my pronunciation of the flap t sound?
How can I practice differentiating between the “æ” and “ɛ” sounds in English phonology?Is the [ʊ] sound pronounced with lip rounding?What exactly is the “schwa” sound?How the British pronounce “want”?How to correct/improve 's-' pronunciation at the beginning of a sentence?Pronunciation of Mid-Word American English T + DIs it acceptable that 'fuel' is pronounced as 'fju:ə'Pronouncing the “th” sound in American accentWhy isn't the T in “relative” flapped?Am I semi-rhotic?
I am a non native speaker from Europe (my native language is Slovenian) and I'm trying to improve my English accent and pronunciation but I'm struggling with the flap t sound. I can pronounce it in most words that don't have an r sound or r colored vowel in them. However when I pronounce words like better or water it starts to sound like two consecutive r sounds or a strong d and an r sound. Is there any specific way to practice this or have I just not practiced enough?
american-english pronunciation north-american-english flapping
New contributor
add a comment |
I am a non native speaker from Europe (my native language is Slovenian) and I'm trying to improve my English accent and pronunciation but I'm struggling with the flap t sound. I can pronounce it in most words that don't have an r sound or r colored vowel in them. However when I pronounce words like better or water it starts to sound like two consecutive r sounds or a strong d and an r sound. Is there any specific way to practice this or have I just not practiced enough?
american-english pronunciation north-american-english flapping
New contributor
1
It IS two consecutive /r/ sounds. The flap [ɾ] is the UK pronunciation of intervocalic /r/, as in carry. In the US, most final /r/'s are vocalic, not consonantal. They're either /ə/ in non-rhotic dialects like Boston, or retroflexed [ɚ] in the rhotic ones. So they don't contrast with the tap. BTW, the rule for the tap applies to /d/ as well as /t/ -- they neutralize following a stressed vowel and preceding an unstressed one, and the flap substitutes for both. That's why looter and lewder sound the same (unless the /u/ is longer before /d/, which some people claim).
– John Lawler
1 hour ago
Can you say the word ‘turn’ properly? If so say “whah” and then say ’turn’ with a good amount of space between them. Drop the ’n’ on ’turn’. Slowly reduce the space between the words keeping the ’t’ crisp.
– Jim
58 mins ago
add a comment |
I am a non native speaker from Europe (my native language is Slovenian) and I'm trying to improve my English accent and pronunciation but I'm struggling with the flap t sound. I can pronounce it in most words that don't have an r sound or r colored vowel in them. However when I pronounce words like better or water it starts to sound like two consecutive r sounds or a strong d and an r sound. Is there any specific way to practice this or have I just not practiced enough?
american-english pronunciation north-american-english flapping
New contributor
I am a non native speaker from Europe (my native language is Slovenian) and I'm trying to improve my English accent and pronunciation but I'm struggling with the flap t sound. I can pronounce it in most words that don't have an r sound or r colored vowel in them. However when I pronounce words like better or water it starts to sound like two consecutive r sounds or a strong d and an r sound. Is there any specific way to practice this or have I just not practiced enough?
american-english pronunciation north-american-english flapping
american-english pronunciation north-american-english flapping
New contributor
New contributor
edited 1 hour ago
Laurel
34.2k668119
34.2k668119
New contributor
asked 1 hour ago
TilenTilen
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1
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It IS two consecutive /r/ sounds. The flap [ɾ] is the UK pronunciation of intervocalic /r/, as in carry. In the US, most final /r/'s are vocalic, not consonantal. They're either /ə/ in non-rhotic dialects like Boston, or retroflexed [ɚ] in the rhotic ones. So they don't contrast with the tap. BTW, the rule for the tap applies to /d/ as well as /t/ -- they neutralize following a stressed vowel and preceding an unstressed one, and the flap substitutes for both. That's why looter and lewder sound the same (unless the /u/ is longer before /d/, which some people claim).
– John Lawler
1 hour ago
Can you say the word ‘turn’ properly? If so say “whah” and then say ’turn’ with a good amount of space between them. Drop the ’n’ on ’turn’. Slowly reduce the space between the words keeping the ’t’ crisp.
– Jim
58 mins ago
add a comment |
1
It IS two consecutive /r/ sounds. The flap [ɾ] is the UK pronunciation of intervocalic /r/, as in carry. In the US, most final /r/'s are vocalic, not consonantal. They're either /ə/ in non-rhotic dialects like Boston, or retroflexed [ɚ] in the rhotic ones. So they don't contrast with the tap. BTW, the rule for the tap applies to /d/ as well as /t/ -- they neutralize following a stressed vowel and preceding an unstressed one, and the flap substitutes for both. That's why looter and lewder sound the same (unless the /u/ is longer before /d/, which some people claim).
– John Lawler
1 hour ago
Can you say the word ‘turn’ properly? If so say “whah” and then say ’turn’ with a good amount of space between them. Drop the ’n’ on ’turn’. Slowly reduce the space between the words keeping the ’t’ crisp.
– Jim
58 mins ago
1
1
It IS two consecutive /r/ sounds. The flap [ɾ] is the UK pronunciation of intervocalic /r/, as in carry. In the US, most final /r/'s are vocalic, not consonantal. They're either /ə/ in non-rhotic dialects like Boston, or retroflexed [ɚ] in the rhotic ones. So they don't contrast with the tap. BTW, the rule for the tap applies to /d/ as well as /t/ -- they neutralize following a stressed vowel and preceding an unstressed one, and the flap substitutes for both. That's why looter and lewder sound the same (unless the /u/ is longer before /d/, which some people claim).
– John Lawler
1 hour ago
It IS two consecutive /r/ sounds. The flap [ɾ] is the UK pronunciation of intervocalic /r/, as in carry. In the US, most final /r/'s are vocalic, not consonantal. They're either /ə/ in non-rhotic dialects like Boston, or retroflexed [ɚ] in the rhotic ones. So they don't contrast with the tap. BTW, the rule for the tap applies to /d/ as well as /t/ -- they neutralize following a stressed vowel and preceding an unstressed one, and the flap substitutes for both. That's why looter and lewder sound the same (unless the /u/ is longer before /d/, which some people claim).
– John Lawler
1 hour ago
Can you say the word ‘turn’ properly? If so say “whah” and then say ’turn’ with a good amount of space between them. Drop the ’n’ on ’turn’. Slowly reduce the space between the words keeping the ’t’ crisp.
– Jim
58 mins ago
Can you say the word ‘turn’ properly? If so say “whah” and then say ’turn’ with a good amount of space between them. Drop the ’n’ on ’turn’. Slowly reduce the space between the words keeping the ’t’ crisp.
– Jim
58 mins ago
add a comment |
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Your description of the problem suggests to me that you're syllabifying the wrong way. Am. English syllabifies bett-er, wat-er. The middle consonant goes in the first syllable, not the second. And since sounds in different syllables are less likely to affect one another, the middle t (once it is flapped) is more susceptible to being affected by the preceding vowel, which is in its own syllable, than it is to being affected by the following vowel, which is in a different syllable.
If you put the middle flap from t into the wrong syllable (which is the second syllable), be-tter, wa-ter, it is more likely to be affected by the second vowel, which is a syllabic r. And it sounds to me like that is what is happening in your speech. The flap from the t is getting retroflexed because of the following r. If you can get the flap into the first syllable, maybe that won't happen.
Unfortunately, I can't think of a good way of explaining how to say bett-er, with the right syllabification, at a normal rate of speech, so that the t flaps. Trying to sound out the word, syllable by syllable, doesn't work, because then the t won't be flapped and will be in the second syllable -- be-tter -- which is not what you want. Like other consonants at the end of a syllable, t between vowels at the end of a syllable is a weakly articulated sound. In fact, that's why it changes to a flap. So, it may help to articulate the flap with less energy, to get it into the previous syllable and preventing it from assimilating to the r.
add a comment |
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Your description of the problem suggests to me that you're syllabifying the wrong way. Am. English syllabifies bett-er, wat-er. The middle consonant goes in the first syllable, not the second. And since sounds in different syllables are less likely to affect one another, the middle t (once it is flapped) is more susceptible to being affected by the preceding vowel, which is in its own syllable, than it is to being affected by the following vowel, which is in a different syllable.
If you put the middle flap from t into the wrong syllable (which is the second syllable), be-tter, wa-ter, it is more likely to be affected by the second vowel, which is a syllabic r. And it sounds to me like that is what is happening in your speech. The flap from the t is getting retroflexed because of the following r. If you can get the flap into the first syllable, maybe that won't happen.
Unfortunately, I can't think of a good way of explaining how to say bett-er, with the right syllabification, at a normal rate of speech, so that the t flaps. Trying to sound out the word, syllable by syllable, doesn't work, because then the t won't be flapped and will be in the second syllable -- be-tter -- which is not what you want. Like other consonants at the end of a syllable, t between vowels at the end of a syllable is a weakly articulated sound. In fact, that's why it changes to a flap. So, it may help to articulate the flap with less energy, to get it into the previous syllable and preventing it from assimilating to the r.
add a comment |
Your description of the problem suggests to me that you're syllabifying the wrong way. Am. English syllabifies bett-er, wat-er. The middle consonant goes in the first syllable, not the second. And since sounds in different syllables are less likely to affect one another, the middle t (once it is flapped) is more susceptible to being affected by the preceding vowel, which is in its own syllable, than it is to being affected by the following vowel, which is in a different syllable.
If you put the middle flap from t into the wrong syllable (which is the second syllable), be-tter, wa-ter, it is more likely to be affected by the second vowel, which is a syllabic r. And it sounds to me like that is what is happening in your speech. The flap from the t is getting retroflexed because of the following r. If you can get the flap into the first syllable, maybe that won't happen.
Unfortunately, I can't think of a good way of explaining how to say bett-er, with the right syllabification, at a normal rate of speech, so that the t flaps. Trying to sound out the word, syllable by syllable, doesn't work, because then the t won't be flapped and will be in the second syllable -- be-tter -- which is not what you want. Like other consonants at the end of a syllable, t between vowels at the end of a syllable is a weakly articulated sound. In fact, that's why it changes to a flap. So, it may help to articulate the flap with less energy, to get it into the previous syllable and preventing it from assimilating to the r.
add a comment |
Your description of the problem suggests to me that you're syllabifying the wrong way. Am. English syllabifies bett-er, wat-er. The middle consonant goes in the first syllable, not the second. And since sounds in different syllables are less likely to affect one another, the middle t (once it is flapped) is more susceptible to being affected by the preceding vowel, which is in its own syllable, than it is to being affected by the following vowel, which is in a different syllable.
If you put the middle flap from t into the wrong syllable (which is the second syllable), be-tter, wa-ter, it is more likely to be affected by the second vowel, which is a syllabic r. And it sounds to me like that is what is happening in your speech. The flap from the t is getting retroflexed because of the following r. If you can get the flap into the first syllable, maybe that won't happen.
Unfortunately, I can't think of a good way of explaining how to say bett-er, with the right syllabification, at a normal rate of speech, so that the t flaps. Trying to sound out the word, syllable by syllable, doesn't work, because then the t won't be flapped and will be in the second syllable -- be-tter -- which is not what you want. Like other consonants at the end of a syllable, t between vowels at the end of a syllable is a weakly articulated sound. In fact, that's why it changes to a flap. So, it may help to articulate the flap with less energy, to get it into the previous syllable and preventing it from assimilating to the r.
Your description of the problem suggests to me that you're syllabifying the wrong way. Am. English syllabifies bett-er, wat-er. The middle consonant goes in the first syllable, not the second. And since sounds in different syllables are less likely to affect one another, the middle t (once it is flapped) is more susceptible to being affected by the preceding vowel, which is in its own syllable, than it is to being affected by the following vowel, which is in a different syllable.
If you put the middle flap from t into the wrong syllable (which is the second syllable), be-tter, wa-ter, it is more likely to be affected by the second vowel, which is a syllabic r. And it sounds to me like that is what is happening in your speech. The flap from the t is getting retroflexed because of the following r. If you can get the flap into the first syllable, maybe that won't happen.
Unfortunately, I can't think of a good way of explaining how to say bett-er, with the right syllabification, at a normal rate of speech, so that the t flaps. Trying to sound out the word, syllable by syllable, doesn't work, because then the t won't be flapped and will be in the second syllable -- be-tter -- which is not what you want. Like other consonants at the end of a syllable, t between vowels at the end of a syllable is a weakly articulated sound. In fact, that's why it changes to a flap. So, it may help to articulate the flap with less energy, to get it into the previous syllable and preventing it from assimilating to the r.
answered 1 hour ago
Greg LeeGreg Lee
14.9k2933
14.9k2933
add a comment |
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It IS two consecutive /r/ sounds. The flap [ɾ] is the UK pronunciation of intervocalic /r/, as in carry. In the US, most final /r/'s are vocalic, not consonantal. They're either /ə/ in non-rhotic dialects like Boston, or retroflexed [ɚ] in the rhotic ones. So they don't contrast with the tap. BTW, the rule for the tap applies to /d/ as well as /t/ -- they neutralize following a stressed vowel and preceding an unstressed one, and the flap substitutes for both. That's why looter and lewder sound the same (unless the /u/ is longer before /d/, which some people claim).
– John Lawler
1 hour ago
Can you say the word ‘turn’ properly? If so say “whah” and then say ’turn’ with a good amount of space between them. Drop the ’n’ on ’turn’. Slowly reduce the space between the words keeping the ’t’ crisp.
– Jim
58 mins ago