Different etymologies for spoken and written forms The Next CEO of Stack OverflowWhy English pronunciation differs so much from written language, compared to German?Is spelling part of Language?How can a written language develop with unspoken letters?Why “pastime” but not “passtime”?Origin of irregular ending “-ught” for past simple and participleWhat's the current scholarly opinion on the “minims” explanation for the spelling of “love”, “tongue,” etc?History and Explanation of Scientific English Pronunciation Convention: PS, PN, PTWhat is the term for a word with two quite different spellings that are pronounced alike?Why is English not constantly updated to better match written and spoken versions?For how long has “plead” been used as a verb counterpart to “plea” (noun) even though both words historically have both verb and noun forms?
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Different etymologies for spoken and written forms
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowWhy English pronunciation differs so much from written language, compared to German?Is spelling part of Language?How can a written language develop with unspoken letters?Why “pastime” but not “passtime”?Origin of irregular ending “-ught” for past simple and participleWhat's the current scholarly opinion on the “minims” explanation for the spelling of “love”, “tongue,” etc?History and Explanation of Scientific English Pronunciation Convention: PS, PN, PTWhat is the term for a word with two quite different spellings that are pronounced alike?Why is English not constantly updated to better match written and spoken versions?For how long has “plead” been used as a verb counterpart to “plea” (noun) even though both words historically have both verb and noun forms?
I know a word in another language which appears at first to have a highly irregular spelling that does not match the pronunciation. However, further examination suggests that the spoken and written forms have different - and unrelated - etymologies. Are there any examples of this in English?
Note that I have decided not to post my example from the other language at this stage in case it distracts.
etymology orthography history pronunciation-vs-spelling historical-change
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
add a comment |
I know a word in another language which appears at first to have a highly irregular spelling that does not match the pronunciation. However, further examination suggests that the spoken and written forms have different - and unrelated - etymologies. Are there any examples of this in English?
Note that I have decided not to post my example from the other language at this stage in case it distracts.
etymology orthography history pronunciation-vs-spelling historical-change
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
It's certainly plausible that a certain English word might have, eg, a French-based pronunciation and a German-based spelling. Nothing remarkable, given the way English has stolen from every other language on the planet.
– Hot Licks
1 hour ago
@HotLicks I guess there are lots of examples like that. I presume you are talking about French and German cognates of the same word, where the Anglo-Saxon population might not have updated their pronunciation when the Normans introduced their spellings for words they recognized as Norman French. Examples of that would be interesting as I do not actually know of any specific examples. But I was really thinking of examples where the forms come from words that are not cognate. So examples of either type would be appreciated.
– David Robinson
1 hour ago
add a comment |
I know a word in another language which appears at first to have a highly irregular spelling that does not match the pronunciation. However, further examination suggests that the spoken and written forms have different - and unrelated - etymologies. Are there any examples of this in English?
Note that I have decided not to post my example from the other language at this stage in case it distracts.
etymology orthography history pronunciation-vs-spelling historical-change
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
I know a word in another language which appears at first to have a highly irregular spelling that does not match the pronunciation. However, further examination suggests that the spoken and written forms have different - and unrelated - etymologies. Are there any examples of this in English?
Note that I have decided not to post my example from the other language at this stage in case it distracts.
etymology orthography history pronunciation-vs-spelling historical-change
etymology orthography history pronunciation-vs-spelling historical-change
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
asked 1 hour ago
David RobinsonDavid Robinson
2,631216
2,631216
It's certainly plausible that a certain English word might have, eg, a French-based pronunciation and a German-based spelling. Nothing remarkable, given the way English has stolen from every other language on the planet.
– Hot Licks
1 hour ago
@HotLicks I guess there are lots of examples like that. I presume you are talking about French and German cognates of the same word, where the Anglo-Saxon population might not have updated their pronunciation when the Normans introduced their spellings for words they recognized as Norman French. Examples of that would be interesting as I do not actually know of any specific examples. But I was really thinking of examples where the forms come from words that are not cognate. So examples of either type would be appreciated.
– David Robinson
1 hour ago
add a comment |
It's certainly plausible that a certain English word might have, eg, a French-based pronunciation and a German-based spelling. Nothing remarkable, given the way English has stolen from every other language on the planet.
– Hot Licks
1 hour ago
@HotLicks I guess there are lots of examples like that. I presume you are talking about French and German cognates of the same word, where the Anglo-Saxon population might not have updated their pronunciation when the Normans introduced their spellings for words they recognized as Norman French. Examples of that would be interesting as I do not actually know of any specific examples. But I was really thinking of examples where the forms come from words that are not cognate. So examples of either type would be appreciated.
– David Robinson
1 hour ago
It's certainly plausible that a certain English word might have, eg, a French-based pronunciation and a German-based spelling. Nothing remarkable, given the way English has stolen from every other language on the planet.
– Hot Licks
1 hour ago
It's certainly plausible that a certain English word might have, eg, a French-based pronunciation and a German-based spelling. Nothing remarkable, given the way English has stolen from every other language on the planet.
– Hot Licks
1 hour ago
@HotLicks I guess there are lots of examples like that. I presume you are talking about French and German cognates of the same word, where the Anglo-Saxon population might not have updated their pronunciation when the Normans introduced their spellings for words they recognized as Norman French. Examples of that would be interesting as I do not actually know of any specific examples. But I was really thinking of examples where the forms come from words that are not cognate. So examples of either type would be appreciated.
– David Robinson
1 hour ago
@HotLicks I guess there are lots of examples like that. I presume you are talking about French and German cognates of the same word, where the Anglo-Saxon population might not have updated their pronunciation when the Normans introduced their spellings for words they recognized as Norman French. Examples of that would be interesting as I do not actually know of any specific examples. But I was really thinking of examples where the forms come from words that are not cognate. So examples of either type would be appreciated.
– David Robinson
1 hour ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
This isn't quite what you're looking for, but it's close.
The word island comes to us from the old English word iegland, which became yland in Middle English. Note that there is no "s" in it. The "s" was added by mistake.
The "s" in the spelling comes from confusion with the unrelated word isle. This was ile in Middle English, from Old French ile, from Latin insula. This word had an "s" added in the 16th century
because there had been one in Latin.
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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oldest
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votes
This isn't quite what you're looking for, but it's close.
The word island comes to us from the old English word iegland, which became yland in Middle English. Note that there is no "s" in it. The "s" was added by mistake.
The "s" in the spelling comes from confusion with the unrelated word isle. This was ile in Middle English, from Old French ile, from Latin insula. This word had an "s" added in the 16th century
because there had been one in Latin.
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
add a comment |
This isn't quite what you're looking for, but it's close.
The word island comes to us from the old English word iegland, which became yland in Middle English. Note that there is no "s" in it. The "s" was added by mistake.
The "s" in the spelling comes from confusion with the unrelated word isle. This was ile in Middle English, from Old French ile, from Latin insula. This word had an "s" added in the 16th century
because there had been one in Latin.
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
add a comment |
This isn't quite what you're looking for, but it's close.
The word island comes to us from the old English word iegland, which became yland in Middle English. Note that there is no "s" in it. The "s" was added by mistake.
The "s" in the spelling comes from confusion with the unrelated word isle. This was ile in Middle English, from Old French ile, from Latin insula. This word had an "s" added in the 16th century
because there had been one in Latin.
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
This isn't quite what you're looking for, but it's close.
The word island comes to us from the old English word iegland, which became yland in Middle English. Note that there is no "s" in it. The "s" was added by mistake.
The "s" in the spelling comes from confusion with the unrelated word isle. This was ile in Middle English, from Old French ile, from Latin insula. This word had an "s" added in the 16th century
because there had been one in Latin.
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
answered 1 hour ago
Peter Shor Peter Shor
63k5122229
63k5122229
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
add a comment |
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
That is an interesting example. It matches the example I was thinking of in that the words have some morphological similarity which appears to have led to confusion. But it contrasts because the words were synonyms, whereas my example they have clearly different meanings which are used in the same context.
– David Robinson
49 mins ago
add a comment |
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It's certainly plausible that a certain English word might have, eg, a French-based pronunciation and a German-based spelling. Nothing remarkable, given the way English has stolen from every other language on the planet.
– Hot Licks
1 hour ago
@HotLicks I guess there are lots of examples like that. I presume you are talking about French and German cognates of the same word, where the Anglo-Saxon population might not have updated their pronunciation when the Normans introduced their spellings for words they recognized as Norman French. Examples of that would be interesting as I do not actually know of any specific examples. But I was really thinking of examples where the forms come from words that are not cognate. So examples of either type would be appreciated.
– David Robinson
1 hour ago