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Is it correct to say “proud of having met you”, or should it be “proud to have met”?
The Next CEO of Stack Overflowproud to be & proud of beingIs there another way to say “needn't have done”?Between Present Perfect and Simple Past, which tense indicates a finished action?Is “having have been” / “having have eaten” grammatically correct? Is it a verb tense?this is/was the best meal I have ever had/had hadIs “What did you just say” grammatically correct?Past Simple or Present Perfect with “Never”?Struggling with simple past/present perfect in “Author X (2016) showed/has shown”Are “Why did you do that” and “Why have you done that” interchangeable?Is it correct to use Present Prefect with “past week”?
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 1 hour ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
add a comment |
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 1 hour ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
Feb 28 at 19:23
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:58
It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
– psosuna
Mar 1 at 17:02
add a comment |
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
asked Feb 28 at 19:21
user13985user13985
1033
1033
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 1 hour ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 1 hour ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
Feb 28 at 19:23
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:58
It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
– psosuna
Mar 1 at 17:02
add a comment |
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
Feb 28 at 19:23
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:58
It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
– psosuna
Mar 1 at 17:02
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
Feb 28 at 19:23
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
Feb 28 at 19:23
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:58
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:58
It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
– psosuna
Mar 1 at 17:02
It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
– psosuna
Mar 1 at 17:02
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
1
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
1
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
add a comment |
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
1
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
add a comment |
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
answered Mar 1 at 0:11
hgulerhguler
3006
3006
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
1
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
add a comment |
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
1
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:01
1
1
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
Mar 1 at 4:29
add a comment |
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"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
Feb 28 at 19:23
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
Mar 1 at 3:58
It's not that it would be grammatically wrong if the sentence were "I have pride of having met both of you." but it is awkward to a native speaker. The usual utterance for this is not to "have pride" because in this sense "pride" is the intangible feeling. Often we use "taking pride" when we refer to a specific event where one feels proud. I would revise this as: "I take pride in having met both of you." Only reason why this isn't an answer is because I'm not sure how to explain this with enough detail apart from it's just not the norm.
– psosuna
Mar 1 at 17:02