When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?“Me being” versus “my being”“…his parents' dream of *him* achieving a Cambridge degree.” What is the function of “him” here?“If you don't mind me asking” or “If you don't mind my asking”?Would you mind me / my opening the window?What is the correct form of a gerund?Is “We look forward to your spending time with us” a proper use of “your”?“Because of our doing something …” - Is this correct English?“Despite me being” vs. “Despite my being”Please explain the grammar behind these sentencesMust I use “their” or “them” in the following instanceUsage of the gerund preceded by the possessive adjective/determiner?Gerund preceded by a genitive?gerund/possessive usage quandarypossessive-before-gerund: “him sleeping with” or “his sleeping with”?Possessive + gerund + object pronounPossessive followed by negative gerundWhen must a gerund be preceded by a possessive pronoun as opposed to an accusative one?What is the best word for possessive determiner his/herPossessive-gerund/ sentence structurePossessive pronoun/object pronoun + Gerund

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When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?


“Me being” versus “my being”“…his parents' dream of *him* achieving a Cambridge degree.” What is the function of “him” here?“If you don't mind me asking” or “If you don't mind my asking”?Would you mind me / my opening the window?What is the correct form of a gerund?Is “We look forward to your spending time with us” a proper use of “your”?“Because of our doing something …” - Is this correct English?“Despite me being” vs. “Despite my being”Please explain the grammar behind these sentencesMust I use “their” or “them” in the following instanceUsage of the gerund preceded by the possessive adjective/determiner?Gerund preceded by a genitive?gerund/possessive usage quandarypossessive-before-gerund: “him sleeping with” or “his sleeping with”?Possessive + gerund + object pronounPossessive followed by negative gerundWhen must a gerund be preceded by a possessive pronoun as opposed to an accusative one?What is the best word for possessive determiner his/herPossessive-gerund/ sentence structurePossessive pronoun/object pronoun + Gerund






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








54















I assume that the following sentences are grammatically correct:




  • He resents your being more popular than he is.

  • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them.

  • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command position.

  • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car?

  • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that.



I'm still getting used to this possessive gerund structure. It sounded so weird to me at first.



Is the structure used in both formal and informal contexts? Are there any alternative structures that result in the same meaning and are more frequently used?



(Examples taken from http://grammartips.homestead.com/possessivewithgerund.html)










share|improve this question



















  • 5





    It's one variant, and falutes slightly higher, but with pronouns there are many idioms. Gerund clauses have two complementizers: the normal Acc-ing complementizer (without him telling me), and the Poss-ing complementizer (without his telling me). Both are correct, both are common, but Acc-ing is somewhat more common in practice.

    – John Lawler
    Dec 20 '14 at 18:10






  • 1





    @John Lawler Professor Lawler, I wasn't able to find "falute" as a verb in M-W U or in other dictionaries. It might be in the OED. Your meaning here seems to be "being pretentious," but I'd appreciate your take on it.

    – Marius Hancu
    Apr 1 '15 at 10:01






  • 6





    Look up "high-faluting" and apply a morphological filter.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 3 '15 at 2:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: help! I cannot understand why my edit to the title of the post (replacing 'pronoun' with 'adjective or determiner') was rejected!

    – user58319
    Feb 27 '16 at 9:28






  • 3





    @JohnLawler As far as the UK is concerned, the "poss -ing variety (albeit perhaps less common) is certainly associated with a better educated and more erudite individual. For that reason I would always encourage any young person to prefer it to the alternative. Though I certainly use both forms myself, and the choice of which, as with many expressions, could well depend on whom I am talking to.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 17:56

















54















I assume that the following sentences are grammatically correct:




  • He resents your being more popular than he is.

  • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them.

  • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command position.

  • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car?

  • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that.



I'm still getting used to this possessive gerund structure. It sounded so weird to me at first.



Is the structure used in both formal and informal contexts? Are there any alternative structures that result in the same meaning and are more frequently used?



(Examples taken from http://grammartips.homestead.com/possessivewithgerund.html)










share|improve this question



















  • 5





    It's one variant, and falutes slightly higher, but with pronouns there are many idioms. Gerund clauses have two complementizers: the normal Acc-ing complementizer (without him telling me), and the Poss-ing complementizer (without his telling me). Both are correct, both are common, but Acc-ing is somewhat more common in practice.

    – John Lawler
    Dec 20 '14 at 18:10






  • 1





    @John Lawler Professor Lawler, I wasn't able to find "falute" as a verb in M-W U or in other dictionaries. It might be in the OED. Your meaning here seems to be "being pretentious," but I'd appreciate your take on it.

    – Marius Hancu
    Apr 1 '15 at 10:01






  • 6





    Look up "high-faluting" and apply a morphological filter.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 3 '15 at 2:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: help! I cannot understand why my edit to the title of the post (replacing 'pronoun' with 'adjective or determiner') was rejected!

    – user58319
    Feb 27 '16 at 9:28






  • 3





    @JohnLawler As far as the UK is concerned, the "poss -ing variety (albeit perhaps less common) is certainly associated with a better educated and more erudite individual. For that reason I would always encourage any young person to prefer it to the alternative. Though I certainly use both forms myself, and the choice of which, as with many expressions, could well depend on whom I am talking to.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 17:56













54












54








54


42






I assume that the following sentences are grammatically correct:




  • He resents your being more popular than he is.

  • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them.

  • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command position.

  • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car?

  • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that.



I'm still getting used to this possessive gerund structure. It sounded so weird to me at first.



Is the structure used in both formal and informal contexts? Are there any alternative structures that result in the same meaning and are more frequently used?



(Examples taken from http://grammartips.homestead.com/possessivewithgerund.html)










share|improve this question
















I assume that the following sentences are grammatically correct:




  • He resents your being more popular than he is.

  • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them.

  • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command position.

  • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car?

  • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that.



I'm still getting used to this possessive gerund structure. It sounded so weird to me at first.



Is the structure used in both formal and informal contexts? Are there any alternative structures that result in the same meaning and are more frequently used?



(Examples taken from http://grammartips.homestead.com/possessivewithgerund.html)







grammaticality possessives gerunds possessive-determiners






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Feb 27 '16 at 11:31







user140086

















asked Sep 6 '10 at 16:37









b.rothb.roth

16.8k1877123




16.8k1877123







  • 5





    It's one variant, and falutes slightly higher, but with pronouns there are many idioms. Gerund clauses have two complementizers: the normal Acc-ing complementizer (without him telling me), and the Poss-ing complementizer (without his telling me). Both are correct, both are common, but Acc-ing is somewhat more common in practice.

    – John Lawler
    Dec 20 '14 at 18:10






  • 1





    @John Lawler Professor Lawler, I wasn't able to find "falute" as a verb in M-W U or in other dictionaries. It might be in the OED. Your meaning here seems to be "being pretentious," but I'd appreciate your take on it.

    – Marius Hancu
    Apr 1 '15 at 10:01






  • 6





    Look up "high-faluting" and apply a morphological filter.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 3 '15 at 2:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: help! I cannot understand why my edit to the title of the post (replacing 'pronoun' with 'adjective or determiner') was rejected!

    – user58319
    Feb 27 '16 at 9:28






  • 3





    @JohnLawler As far as the UK is concerned, the "poss -ing variety (albeit perhaps less common) is certainly associated with a better educated and more erudite individual. For that reason I would always encourage any young person to prefer it to the alternative. Though I certainly use both forms myself, and the choice of which, as with many expressions, could well depend on whom I am talking to.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 17:56












  • 5





    It's one variant, and falutes slightly higher, but with pronouns there are many idioms. Gerund clauses have two complementizers: the normal Acc-ing complementizer (without him telling me), and the Poss-ing complementizer (without his telling me). Both are correct, both are common, but Acc-ing is somewhat more common in practice.

    – John Lawler
    Dec 20 '14 at 18:10






  • 1





    @John Lawler Professor Lawler, I wasn't able to find "falute" as a verb in M-W U or in other dictionaries. It might be in the OED. Your meaning here seems to be "being pretentious," but I'd appreciate your take on it.

    – Marius Hancu
    Apr 1 '15 at 10:01






  • 6





    Look up "high-faluting" and apply a morphological filter.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 3 '15 at 2:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: help! I cannot understand why my edit to the title of the post (replacing 'pronoun' with 'adjective or determiner') was rejected!

    – user58319
    Feb 27 '16 at 9:28






  • 3





    @JohnLawler As far as the UK is concerned, the "poss -ing variety (albeit perhaps less common) is certainly associated with a better educated and more erudite individual. For that reason I would always encourage any young person to prefer it to the alternative. Though I certainly use both forms myself, and the choice of which, as with many expressions, could well depend on whom I am talking to.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 17:56







5




5





It's one variant, and falutes slightly higher, but with pronouns there are many idioms. Gerund clauses have two complementizers: the normal Acc-ing complementizer (without him telling me), and the Poss-ing complementizer (without his telling me). Both are correct, both are common, but Acc-ing is somewhat more common in practice.

– John Lawler
Dec 20 '14 at 18:10





It's one variant, and falutes slightly higher, but with pronouns there are many idioms. Gerund clauses have two complementizers: the normal Acc-ing complementizer (without him telling me), and the Poss-ing complementizer (without his telling me). Both are correct, both are common, but Acc-ing is somewhat more common in practice.

– John Lawler
Dec 20 '14 at 18:10




1




1





@John Lawler Professor Lawler, I wasn't able to find "falute" as a verb in M-W U or in other dictionaries. It might be in the OED. Your meaning here seems to be "being pretentious," but I'd appreciate your take on it.

– Marius Hancu
Apr 1 '15 at 10:01





@John Lawler Professor Lawler, I wasn't able to find "falute" as a verb in M-W U or in other dictionaries. It might be in the OED. Your meaning here seems to be "being pretentious," but I'd appreciate your take on it.

– Marius Hancu
Apr 1 '15 at 10:01




6




6





Look up "high-faluting" and apply a morphological filter.

– John Lawler
Apr 3 '15 at 2:48





Look up "high-faluting" and apply a morphological filter.

– John Lawler
Apr 3 '15 at 2:48




1




1





@JohnLawler: help! I cannot understand why my edit to the title of the post (replacing 'pronoun' with 'adjective or determiner') was rejected!

– user58319
Feb 27 '16 at 9:28





@JohnLawler: help! I cannot understand why my edit to the title of the post (replacing 'pronoun' with 'adjective or determiner') was rejected!

– user58319
Feb 27 '16 at 9:28




3




3





@JohnLawler As far as the UK is concerned, the "poss -ing variety (albeit perhaps less common) is certainly associated with a better educated and more erudite individual. For that reason I would always encourage any young person to prefer it to the alternative. Though I certainly use both forms myself, and the choice of which, as with many expressions, could well depend on whom I am talking to.

– WS2
Jan 3 '17 at 17:56





@JohnLawler As far as the UK is concerned, the "poss -ing variety (albeit perhaps less common) is certainly associated with a better educated and more erudite individual. For that reason I would always encourage any young person to prefer it to the alternative. Though I certainly use both forms myself, and the choice of which, as with many expressions, could well depend on whom I am talking to.

– WS2
Jan 3 '17 at 17:56










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















50














When I first heard about this usage in a grammar lesson in middle school, it sounded weird to me, too. As in the linked page in your answer, my teacher taught us that using possessive pronouns (also known as genitives) is the only grammatical way to mark subjects of gerund clauses. While that way is more traditional and formal, using object pronouns (accusatives) is also quite common.



In chapter 14, section 4.3, of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, entitled “Non-finite and verbless clauses”, the main thrust lays waste to the traditional distinction between gerund clauses and present participle clauses, by arguing they all belong to a single inflectional category; namely, gerund-participles. However, there is a paragraph explaining the use of genitives with gerunds:




There is one respect in which ‘gerund’ and ‘present participle’ clauses differ in their internal form: with ‘gerunds’ the subject may take genitive case, with plain or accusative case a less formal alternant, but with ‘present participles’ the genitive is impossible and pronouns with a nominative–accusative contrast appear in nominative case, with accusative an alternant restricted to informal style. Compare then:

[39] i. She resented his/him/*he being invited to open the debate.

       ii. We appointed Max, he/him/*his being much the best qualified of the candidates.




In other words, gerunds (as in example 39i) can take either the genitive (his) or the accusative (him) as subject, with genitive being more formal and accusative less formal. The nominative (he) is not possible as the subject of a gerund.



In participial clauses with a subject (as in example 39ii), there is a similar situation: both the nominative (he) and accusative (him) are possible, again with accusative being less formal, but the genitive (his) is not possible.



The page of “grammar tips” linked in the question confuses informal style with incorrect grammar, a common problem in grammar advice. The versions of the examples with accusative instead of genitive (e.g. What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?) are perfectly grammatical and simply a less stuffy style.



You will find many examples of gerunds with accusative subject—even in formal academic writing—so you should feel free to use whichever of the two formulations seems natural.






share|improve this answer




















  • 2





    Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

    – Jonik
    Sep 6 '10 at 19:52







  • 11





    There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

    – Kosmonaut
    Sep 6 '10 at 22:49






  • 2





    @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

    – nohat
    Sep 7 '10 at 0:06






  • 5





    I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

    – RegDwigнt
    Oct 12 '10 at 11:50











  • This is just him being a linguist.

    – Robusto
    Jun 9 '12 at 19:33


















25














It is perhaps worth adding the contrast identified in the ‘Longman Student Grammar of Spoken and Written English’:




When the possessive alternative is used, it focuses attention on the
action described in the ‘-ing’ clause. In contrast the regular Noun
Phrase form puts more emphasis on the person doing the action.







share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

    – Kris
    Apr 11 '13 at 6:24






  • 5





    @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

    – FumbleFingers
    May 16 '13 at 2:56











  • @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:05






  • 1





    @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:26







  • 1





    ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:55


















6














Just to comment on common usage (in British English, at least):



Examples 1, 2 and 4, which use possessive pronouns, look OK, but are somewhat formal. I'd be more likely to use the accusative forms, namely:




He resents you being more popular than he is.



Most of the members paid their dues without me asking them.



What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?




I can believe that examples 3 and 5, which use nouns, may be grammatically correct, but they look wrong, and I do not recall seeing or hearing that particular construction used. I would drop the "-'s" in both cases.






share|improve this answer























  • I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

    – Dog Lover
    Jun 24 '15 at 22:23


















1














This would be my "common usage" (and non-formal) take:



  • He resents your being more popular than he is. (either your-you)

  • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them. (my preferred)

  • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command
    position. (girl only)

  • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car? (either his-him)

  • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that. (Jane only)

I'm not an expert on all usage, but these are based on my "formality-detector" radar working. Pronouns are easier to work with - if the possessive of the gerund is called for ("Jane's", etc) it needs to be treated with some care, so as to not sound overly correct.






share|improve this answer























    protected by tchrist Sep 3 '14 at 22:34



    Thank you for your interest in this question.
    Because it has attracted low-quality or spam answers that had to be removed, posting an answer now requires 10 reputation on this site (the association bonus does not count).



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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes








    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    50














    When I first heard about this usage in a grammar lesson in middle school, it sounded weird to me, too. As in the linked page in your answer, my teacher taught us that using possessive pronouns (also known as genitives) is the only grammatical way to mark subjects of gerund clauses. While that way is more traditional and formal, using object pronouns (accusatives) is also quite common.



    In chapter 14, section 4.3, of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, entitled “Non-finite and verbless clauses”, the main thrust lays waste to the traditional distinction between gerund clauses and present participle clauses, by arguing they all belong to a single inflectional category; namely, gerund-participles. However, there is a paragraph explaining the use of genitives with gerunds:




    There is one respect in which ‘gerund’ and ‘present participle’ clauses differ in their internal form: with ‘gerunds’ the subject may take genitive case, with plain or accusative case a less formal alternant, but with ‘present participles’ the genitive is impossible and pronouns with a nominative–accusative contrast appear in nominative case, with accusative an alternant restricted to informal style. Compare then:

    [39] i. She resented his/him/*he being invited to open the debate.

           ii. We appointed Max, he/him/*his being much the best qualified of the candidates.




    In other words, gerunds (as in example 39i) can take either the genitive (his) or the accusative (him) as subject, with genitive being more formal and accusative less formal. The nominative (he) is not possible as the subject of a gerund.



    In participial clauses with a subject (as in example 39ii), there is a similar situation: both the nominative (he) and accusative (him) are possible, again with accusative being less formal, but the genitive (his) is not possible.



    The page of “grammar tips” linked in the question confuses informal style with incorrect grammar, a common problem in grammar advice. The versions of the examples with accusative instead of genitive (e.g. What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?) are perfectly grammatical and simply a less stuffy style.



    You will find many examples of gerunds with accusative subject—even in formal academic writing—so you should feel free to use whichever of the two formulations seems natural.






    share|improve this answer




















    • 2





      Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

      – Jonik
      Sep 6 '10 at 19:52







    • 11





      There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

      – Kosmonaut
      Sep 6 '10 at 22:49






    • 2





      @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

      – nohat
      Sep 7 '10 at 0:06






    • 5





      I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

      – RegDwigнt
      Oct 12 '10 at 11:50











    • This is just him being a linguist.

      – Robusto
      Jun 9 '12 at 19:33















    50














    When I first heard about this usage in a grammar lesson in middle school, it sounded weird to me, too. As in the linked page in your answer, my teacher taught us that using possessive pronouns (also known as genitives) is the only grammatical way to mark subjects of gerund clauses. While that way is more traditional and formal, using object pronouns (accusatives) is also quite common.



    In chapter 14, section 4.3, of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, entitled “Non-finite and verbless clauses”, the main thrust lays waste to the traditional distinction between gerund clauses and present participle clauses, by arguing they all belong to a single inflectional category; namely, gerund-participles. However, there is a paragraph explaining the use of genitives with gerunds:




    There is one respect in which ‘gerund’ and ‘present participle’ clauses differ in their internal form: with ‘gerunds’ the subject may take genitive case, with plain or accusative case a less formal alternant, but with ‘present participles’ the genitive is impossible and pronouns with a nominative–accusative contrast appear in nominative case, with accusative an alternant restricted to informal style. Compare then:

    [39] i. She resented his/him/*he being invited to open the debate.

           ii. We appointed Max, he/him/*his being much the best qualified of the candidates.




    In other words, gerunds (as in example 39i) can take either the genitive (his) or the accusative (him) as subject, with genitive being more formal and accusative less formal. The nominative (he) is not possible as the subject of a gerund.



    In participial clauses with a subject (as in example 39ii), there is a similar situation: both the nominative (he) and accusative (him) are possible, again with accusative being less formal, but the genitive (his) is not possible.



    The page of “grammar tips” linked in the question confuses informal style with incorrect grammar, a common problem in grammar advice. The versions of the examples with accusative instead of genitive (e.g. What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?) are perfectly grammatical and simply a less stuffy style.



    You will find many examples of gerunds with accusative subject—even in formal academic writing—so you should feel free to use whichever of the two formulations seems natural.






    share|improve this answer




















    • 2





      Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

      – Jonik
      Sep 6 '10 at 19:52







    • 11





      There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

      – Kosmonaut
      Sep 6 '10 at 22:49






    • 2





      @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

      – nohat
      Sep 7 '10 at 0:06






    • 5





      I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

      – RegDwigнt
      Oct 12 '10 at 11:50











    • This is just him being a linguist.

      – Robusto
      Jun 9 '12 at 19:33













    50












    50








    50







    When I first heard about this usage in a grammar lesson in middle school, it sounded weird to me, too. As in the linked page in your answer, my teacher taught us that using possessive pronouns (also known as genitives) is the only grammatical way to mark subjects of gerund clauses. While that way is more traditional and formal, using object pronouns (accusatives) is also quite common.



    In chapter 14, section 4.3, of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, entitled “Non-finite and verbless clauses”, the main thrust lays waste to the traditional distinction between gerund clauses and present participle clauses, by arguing they all belong to a single inflectional category; namely, gerund-participles. However, there is a paragraph explaining the use of genitives with gerunds:




    There is one respect in which ‘gerund’ and ‘present participle’ clauses differ in their internal form: with ‘gerunds’ the subject may take genitive case, with plain or accusative case a less formal alternant, but with ‘present participles’ the genitive is impossible and pronouns with a nominative–accusative contrast appear in nominative case, with accusative an alternant restricted to informal style. Compare then:

    [39] i. She resented his/him/*he being invited to open the debate.

           ii. We appointed Max, he/him/*his being much the best qualified of the candidates.




    In other words, gerunds (as in example 39i) can take either the genitive (his) or the accusative (him) as subject, with genitive being more formal and accusative less formal. The nominative (he) is not possible as the subject of a gerund.



    In participial clauses with a subject (as in example 39ii), there is a similar situation: both the nominative (he) and accusative (him) are possible, again with accusative being less formal, but the genitive (his) is not possible.



    The page of “grammar tips” linked in the question confuses informal style with incorrect grammar, a common problem in grammar advice. The versions of the examples with accusative instead of genitive (e.g. What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?) are perfectly grammatical and simply a less stuffy style.



    You will find many examples of gerunds with accusative subject—even in formal academic writing—so you should feel free to use whichever of the two formulations seems natural.






    share|improve this answer















    When I first heard about this usage in a grammar lesson in middle school, it sounded weird to me, too. As in the linked page in your answer, my teacher taught us that using possessive pronouns (also known as genitives) is the only grammatical way to mark subjects of gerund clauses. While that way is more traditional and formal, using object pronouns (accusatives) is also quite common.



    In chapter 14, section 4.3, of the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, entitled “Non-finite and verbless clauses”, the main thrust lays waste to the traditional distinction between gerund clauses and present participle clauses, by arguing they all belong to a single inflectional category; namely, gerund-participles. However, there is a paragraph explaining the use of genitives with gerunds:




    There is one respect in which ‘gerund’ and ‘present participle’ clauses differ in their internal form: with ‘gerunds’ the subject may take genitive case, with plain or accusative case a less formal alternant, but with ‘present participles’ the genitive is impossible and pronouns with a nominative–accusative contrast appear in nominative case, with accusative an alternant restricted to informal style. Compare then:

    [39] i. She resented his/him/*he being invited to open the debate.

           ii. We appointed Max, he/him/*his being much the best qualified of the candidates.




    In other words, gerunds (as in example 39i) can take either the genitive (his) or the accusative (him) as subject, with genitive being more formal and accusative less formal. The nominative (he) is not possible as the subject of a gerund.



    In participial clauses with a subject (as in example 39ii), there is a similar situation: both the nominative (he) and accusative (him) are possible, again with accusative being less formal, but the genitive (his) is not possible.



    The page of “grammar tips” linked in the question confuses informal style with incorrect grammar, a common problem in grammar advice. The versions of the examples with accusative instead of genitive (e.g. What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?) are perfectly grammatical and simply a less stuffy style.



    You will find many examples of gerunds with accusative subject—even in formal academic writing—so you should feel free to use whichever of the two formulations seems natural.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 1 hour ago









    JJJ

    6,241102846




    6,241102846










    answered Sep 6 '10 at 17:56









    nohatnohat

    61k12171239




    61k12171239







    • 2





      Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

      – Jonik
      Sep 6 '10 at 19:52







    • 11





      There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

      – Kosmonaut
      Sep 6 '10 at 22:49






    • 2





      @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

      – nohat
      Sep 7 '10 at 0:06






    • 5





      I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

      – RegDwigнt
      Oct 12 '10 at 11:50











    • This is just him being a linguist.

      – Robusto
      Jun 9 '12 at 19:33












    • 2





      Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

      – Jonik
      Sep 6 '10 at 19:52







    • 11





      There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

      – Kosmonaut
      Sep 6 '10 at 22:49






    • 2





      @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

      – nohat
      Sep 7 '10 at 0:06






    • 5





      I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

      – RegDwigнt
      Oct 12 '10 at 11:50











    • This is just him being a linguist.

      – Robusto
      Jun 9 '12 at 19:33







    2




    2





    Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

    – Jonik
    Sep 6 '10 at 19:52






    Great explanation! I had wondered about this too. Btw, do you agree with Steve about examples 3 and 5?

    – Jonik
    Sep 6 '10 at 19:52





    11




    11





    There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

    – Kosmonaut
    Sep 6 '10 at 22:49





    There actually can be cases where the two forms are semantically distinct. "I hate John driving" means that you hate the idea of John driving, while "I hate John's driving" means that you hate John's style of driving. Just an interesting added factoid — I don't really have a good analysis of it.

    – Kosmonaut
    Sep 6 '10 at 22:49




    2




    2





    @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

    – nohat
    Sep 7 '10 at 0:06





    @Jonik, the only one where I might use the genitive form would be #1. All the rest I would almost certainly use the accusative with. On editing, though, I might change them to genitive. Old habits inculcated by strict teachers die hard.

    – nohat
    Sep 7 '10 at 0:06




    5




    5





    I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

    – RegDwigнt
    Oct 12 '10 at 11:50





    I will throw in a link to the wonderfully informative Language Log entry that was published two weeks after this question (and your answer) had been posted: Possessive with gerund: Tragic loss or good riddance?

    – RegDwigнt
    Oct 12 '10 at 11:50













    This is just him being a linguist.

    – Robusto
    Jun 9 '12 at 19:33





    This is just him being a linguist.

    – Robusto
    Jun 9 '12 at 19:33













    25














    It is perhaps worth adding the contrast identified in the ‘Longman Student Grammar of Spoken and Written English’:




    When the possessive alternative is used, it focuses attention on the
    action described in the ‘-ing’ clause. In contrast the regular Noun
    Phrase form puts more emphasis on the person doing the action.







    share|improve this answer


















    • 1





      +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

      – Kris
      Apr 11 '13 at 6:24






    • 5





      @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

      – FumbleFingers
      May 16 '13 at 2:56











    • @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

      – WS2
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:05






    • 1





      @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:26







    • 1





      ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:55















    25














    It is perhaps worth adding the contrast identified in the ‘Longman Student Grammar of Spoken and Written English’:




    When the possessive alternative is used, it focuses attention on the
    action described in the ‘-ing’ clause. In contrast the regular Noun
    Phrase form puts more emphasis on the person doing the action.







    share|improve this answer


















    • 1





      +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

      – Kris
      Apr 11 '13 at 6:24






    • 5





      @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

      – FumbleFingers
      May 16 '13 at 2:56











    • @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

      – WS2
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:05






    • 1





      @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:26







    • 1





      ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:55













    25












    25








    25







    It is perhaps worth adding the contrast identified in the ‘Longman Student Grammar of Spoken and Written English’:




    When the possessive alternative is used, it focuses attention on the
    action described in the ‘-ing’ clause. In contrast the regular Noun
    Phrase form puts more emphasis on the person doing the action.







    share|improve this answer













    It is perhaps worth adding the contrast identified in the ‘Longman Student Grammar of Spoken and Written English’:




    When the possessive alternative is used, it focuses attention on the
    action described in the ‘-ing’ clause. In contrast the regular Noun
    Phrase form puts more emphasis on the person doing the action.








    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Sep 21 '11 at 14:55









    Barrie EnglandBarrie England

    129k10205355




    129k10205355







    • 1





      +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

      – Kris
      Apr 11 '13 at 6:24






    • 5





      @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

      – FumbleFingers
      May 16 '13 at 2:56











    • @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

      – WS2
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:05






    • 1





      @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:26







    • 1





      ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:55












    • 1





      +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

      – Kris
      Apr 11 '13 at 6:24






    • 5





      @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

      – FumbleFingers
      May 16 '13 at 2:56











    • @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

      – WS2
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:05






    • 1





      @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:26







    • 1





      ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

      – FumbleFingers
      Jan 3 '17 at 18:55







    1




    1





    +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

    – Kris
    Apr 11 '13 at 6:24





    +1 I always thought this was the primary distinction, not an additional feature -- that there indeed is a distinction.

    – Kris
    Apr 11 '13 at 6:24




    5




    5





    @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

    – FumbleFingers
    May 16 '13 at 2:56





    @Kris: For it to be a primary distinction would require that most competent speakers normally make that distinction consciously, which I think is highly unlikely.

    – FumbleFingers
    May 16 '13 at 2:56













    @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:05





    @FumbleFingers As I have commented to John Lawler, I believe (in the UK, as with so many things) it boils down to who you are talking to. If it's a professor in the history department the possessive would apply. If it's the bloke sitting next to me at a football match the accusative would undoubtedly come out first.

    – WS2
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:05




    1




    1





    @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:26






    @WS2: As John so charmingly puts it, [the possessive] falutes slightly higher. So I might make the same distinction as you for the same reason, but to be honest I'd be as likely to deliberately flout that "convention" just because I can. There's no danger of being misunderstood, unless you include the possibility that the history professor might mistakenly suppose I don't know how to use English properly (in which case I'd be gleefully thinking Bring it on! You ignorant pedant!).

    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:26





    1




    1





    ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:55





    ...I always think "good" use of language is that which maximises the chance of the other person understanding exactly what you're trying to convey, not that which more closely adheres to often-outdated syntax rules.

    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 3 '17 at 18:55











    6














    Just to comment on common usage (in British English, at least):



    Examples 1, 2 and 4, which use possessive pronouns, look OK, but are somewhat formal. I'd be more likely to use the accusative forms, namely:




    He resents you being more popular than he is.



    Most of the members paid their dues without me asking them.



    What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?




    I can believe that examples 3 and 5, which use nouns, may be grammatically correct, but they look wrong, and I do not recall seeing or hearing that particular construction used. I would drop the "-'s" in both cases.






    share|improve this answer























    • I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

      – Dog Lover
      Jun 24 '15 at 22:23















    6














    Just to comment on common usage (in British English, at least):



    Examples 1, 2 and 4, which use possessive pronouns, look OK, but are somewhat formal. I'd be more likely to use the accusative forms, namely:




    He resents you being more popular than he is.



    Most of the members paid their dues without me asking them.



    What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?




    I can believe that examples 3 and 5, which use nouns, may be grammatically correct, but they look wrong, and I do not recall seeing or hearing that particular construction used. I would drop the "-'s" in both cases.






    share|improve this answer























    • I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

      – Dog Lover
      Jun 24 '15 at 22:23













    6












    6








    6







    Just to comment on common usage (in British English, at least):



    Examples 1, 2 and 4, which use possessive pronouns, look OK, but are somewhat formal. I'd be more likely to use the accusative forms, namely:




    He resents you being more popular than he is.



    Most of the members paid their dues without me asking them.



    What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?




    I can believe that examples 3 and 5, which use nouns, may be grammatically correct, but they look wrong, and I do not recall seeing or hearing that particular construction used. I would drop the "-'s" in both cases.






    share|improve this answer













    Just to comment on common usage (in British English, at least):



    Examples 1, 2 and 4, which use possessive pronouns, look OK, but are somewhat formal. I'd be more likely to use the accusative forms, namely:




    He resents you being more popular than he is.



    Most of the members paid their dues without me asking them.



    What do you think about him buying such an expensive car?




    I can believe that examples 3 and 5, which use nouns, may be grammatically correct, but they look wrong, and I do not recall seeing or hearing that particular construction used. I would drop the "-'s" in both cases.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Sep 6 '10 at 19:46









    Steve MelnikoffSteve Melnikoff

    5,6242641




    5,6242641












    • I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

      – Dog Lover
      Jun 24 '15 at 22:23

















    • I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

      – Dog Lover
      Jun 24 '15 at 22:23
















    I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

    – Dog Lover
    Jun 24 '15 at 22:23





    I would have to agree with you here. Is American English more likely to use the possessive pronoun than British or Australian English?

    – Dog Lover
    Jun 24 '15 at 22:23











    1














    This would be my "common usage" (and non-formal) take:



    • He resents your being more popular than he is. (either your-you)

    • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them. (my preferred)

    • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command
      position. (girl only)

    • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car? (either his-him)

    • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that. (Jane only)

    I'm not an expert on all usage, but these are based on my "formality-detector" radar working. Pronouns are easier to work with - if the possessive of the gerund is called for ("Jane's", etc) it needs to be treated with some care, so as to not sound overly correct.






    share|improve this answer





























      1














      This would be my "common usage" (and non-formal) take:



      • He resents your being more popular than he is. (either your-you)

      • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them. (my preferred)

      • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command
        position. (girl only)

      • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car? (either his-him)

      • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that. (Jane only)

      I'm not an expert on all usage, but these are based on my "formality-detector" radar working. Pronouns are easier to work with - if the possessive of the gerund is called for ("Jane's", etc) it needs to be treated with some care, so as to not sound overly correct.






      share|improve this answer



























        1












        1








        1







        This would be my "common usage" (and non-formal) take:



        • He resents your being more popular than he is. (either your-you)

        • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them. (my preferred)

        • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command
          position. (girl only)

        • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car? (either his-him)

        • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that. (Jane only)

        I'm not an expert on all usage, but these are based on my "formality-detector" radar working. Pronouns are easier to work with - if the possessive of the gerund is called for ("Jane's", etc) it needs to be treated with some care, so as to not sound overly correct.






        share|improve this answer















        This would be my "common usage" (and non-formal) take:



        • He resents your being more popular than he is. (either your-you)

        • Most of the members paid their dues without my asking them. (my preferred)

        • They objected to the youngest girl's being given the command
          position. (girl only)

        • What do you think about his buying such an expensive car? (either his-him)

        • We were all sorry about Jane's losing her parents like that. (Jane only)

        I'm not an expert on all usage, but these are based on my "formality-detector" radar working. Pronouns are easier to work with - if the possessive of the gerund is called for ("Jane's", etc) it needs to be treated with some care, so as to not sound overly correct.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited Nov 26 '15 at 4:19

























        answered Nov 26 '15 at 3:47









        CargillCargill

        1,76548




        1,76548















            protected by tchrist Sep 3 '14 at 22:34



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