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Is this flapping?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)How do you pronounce the word 'vagary'?Do English words have fixed pronunciation?For word pronunciation that have 2 consonants standing next to each other and at the end, Do we have to fully aspirate both of them?Pronunciation of Mid-Word American English T + DAsians pronounce 'people' as 'peopo'Why isn't the T in “relative” flapped?Is it okay to flap “didn't” (and “wouldn't”, “couldn't”, “ridden”)Am I semi-rhotic?How can I improve my pronunciation of the flap t sound?Is it okay to pronounce “wouldn't”, “couldn't”, “didn't” like this?



.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








1















https://youglish.com/getcid/19629243/Wouldn't/us



I realized that I make a flapping sound [ɾ] when I pronounce "wouldn't".



But I also realized that not every native speaker does that.



Then I found this clip, which I think is flapping like my pronunciation.



So question :
Is that woman in the clip doing flapping? And is it okay to do flapping with words like "wouldn't" , "couldn't", or "didn't"?










share|improve this question









New contributor




nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • The word flapping is not a count noun; it’s not really a noun at all. Therefore saying “a flapping” is borderline ungrammatical.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago


















1















https://youglish.com/getcid/19629243/Wouldn't/us



I realized that I make a flapping sound [ɾ] when I pronounce "wouldn't".



But I also realized that not every native speaker does that.



Then I found this clip, which I think is flapping like my pronunciation.



So question :
Is that woman in the clip doing flapping? And is it okay to do flapping with words like "wouldn't" , "couldn't", or "didn't"?










share|improve this question









New contributor




nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • The word flapping is not a count noun; it’s not really a noun at all. Therefore saying “a flapping” is borderline ungrammatical.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago














1












1








1








https://youglish.com/getcid/19629243/Wouldn't/us



I realized that I make a flapping sound [ɾ] when I pronounce "wouldn't".



But I also realized that not every native speaker does that.



Then I found this clip, which I think is flapping like my pronunciation.



So question :
Is that woman in the clip doing flapping? And is it okay to do flapping with words like "wouldn't" , "couldn't", or "didn't"?










share|improve this question









New contributor




nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












https://youglish.com/getcid/19629243/Wouldn't/us



I realized that I make a flapping sound [ɾ] when I pronounce "wouldn't".



But I also realized that not every native speaker does that.



Then I found this clip, which I think is flapping like my pronunciation.



So question :
Is that woman in the clip doing flapping? And is it okay to do flapping with words like "wouldn't" , "couldn't", or "didn't"?







pronunciation flapping






share|improve this question









New contributor




nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 1 hour ago







nene













New contributor




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asked 16 hours ago









nenenene

324




324




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nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






nene is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • The word flapping is not a count noun; it’s not really a noun at all. Therefore saying “a flapping” is borderline ungrammatical.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago


















  • The word flapping is not a count noun; it’s not really a noun at all. Therefore saying “a flapping” is borderline ungrammatical.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago

















The word flapping is not a count noun; it’s not really a noun at all. Therefore saying “a flapping” is borderline ungrammatical.

– tchrist
8 hours ago






The word flapping is not a count noun; it’s not really a noun at all. Therefore saying “a flapping” is borderline ungrammatical.

– tchrist
8 hours ago











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3














It's hard to be sure, but I think you're right. She's saying a flap followed by schwa: [ɾən]. Many (including me) say [d] followed by syllabic [n] here. The reason you don't get a flap followed immediately by syllabic [n] with no intervening vowel is that the flap articulation requires the tongue tip to touch the alveolar ridge only briefly, but the tip can't leave the ridge immediately if [n] follows; the [n] requires tongue tip contact.



I have a good friend who says "wouldn't" with flap and schwa, and he is from California's Central Valley. (He also has a flap in "button", which is lots easier to hear, because it doesn't sound at all like the glottal stop that most have here.)






share|improve this answer
































    2














    No, she is using [d], not [ɾ], because you can hear a brief friction ([z]-like sound) after /d/, which doesn't occur with [ɾ]. But she is pronouncing the 'n part as [ən], not [n̩] like many other people do. [ən] and [n̩] are interchangeable in this position (see
    this Wikipedia section for more).



    As for your last question, yes. In North American English, /d(ə)n/ preceded by a vowel as in wouldn't, couldn't, didn't, etc. can be pronounced [dn̩], [dən], or [ɾən]. My impression is that [dn̩] (with a nasal release) is most common, followed by [ɾən] and then [dən]. But there is a fair amount of variation among speakers—and even within a single speaker: you can hear her use [dn̩] here right before the sentence in question—so you probably need not worry so much about it so long as you can produce at least one of the three options.






    share|improve this answer























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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3














      It's hard to be sure, but I think you're right. She's saying a flap followed by schwa: [ɾən]. Many (including me) say [d] followed by syllabic [n] here. The reason you don't get a flap followed immediately by syllabic [n] with no intervening vowel is that the flap articulation requires the tongue tip to touch the alveolar ridge only briefly, but the tip can't leave the ridge immediately if [n] follows; the [n] requires tongue tip contact.



      I have a good friend who says "wouldn't" with flap and schwa, and he is from California's Central Valley. (He also has a flap in "button", which is lots easier to hear, because it doesn't sound at all like the glottal stop that most have here.)






      share|improve this answer





























        3














        It's hard to be sure, but I think you're right. She's saying a flap followed by schwa: [ɾən]. Many (including me) say [d] followed by syllabic [n] here. The reason you don't get a flap followed immediately by syllabic [n] with no intervening vowel is that the flap articulation requires the tongue tip to touch the alveolar ridge only briefly, but the tip can't leave the ridge immediately if [n] follows; the [n] requires tongue tip contact.



        I have a good friend who says "wouldn't" with flap and schwa, and he is from California's Central Valley. (He also has a flap in "button", which is lots easier to hear, because it doesn't sound at all like the glottal stop that most have here.)






        share|improve this answer



























          3












          3








          3







          It's hard to be sure, but I think you're right. She's saying a flap followed by schwa: [ɾən]. Many (including me) say [d] followed by syllabic [n] here. The reason you don't get a flap followed immediately by syllabic [n] with no intervening vowel is that the flap articulation requires the tongue tip to touch the alveolar ridge only briefly, but the tip can't leave the ridge immediately if [n] follows; the [n] requires tongue tip contact.



          I have a good friend who says "wouldn't" with flap and schwa, and he is from California's Central Valley. (He also has a flap in "button", which is lots easier to hear, because it doesn't sound at all like the glottal stop that most have here.)






          share|improve this answer















          It's hard to be sure, but I think you're right. She's saying a flap followed by schwa: [ɾən]. Many (including me) say [d] followed by syllabic [n] here. The reason you don't get a flap followed immediately by syllabic [n] with no intervening vowel is that the flap articulation requires the tongue tip to touch the alveolar ridge only briefly, but the tip can't leave the ridge immediately if [n] follows; the [n] requires tongue tip contact.



          I have a good friend who says "wouldn't" with flap and schwa, and he is from California's Central Valley. (He also has a flap in "button", which is lots easier to hear, because it doesn't sound at all like the glottal stop that most have here.)







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 7 hours ago

























          answered 7 hours ago









          Greg LeeGreg Lee

          14.9k2933




          14.9k2933























              2














              No, she is using [d], not [ɾ], because you can hear a brief friction ([z]-like sound) after /d/, which doesn't occur with [ɾ]. But she is pronouncing the 'n part as [ən], not [n̩] like many other people do. [ən] and [n̩] are interchangeable in this position (see
              this Wikipedia section for more).



              As for your last question, yes. In North American English, /d(ə)n/ preceded by a vowel as in wouldn't, couldn't, didn't, etc. can be pronounced [dn̩], [dən], or [ɾən]. My impression is that [dn̩] (with a nasal release) is most common, followed by [ɾən] and then [dən]. But there is a fair amount of variation among speakers—and even within a single speaker: you can hear her use [dn̩] here right before the sentence in question—so you probably need not worry so much about it so long as you can produce at least one of the three options.






              share|improve this answer



























                2














                No, she is using [d], not [ɾ], because you can hear a brief friction ([z]-like sound) after /d/, which doesn't occur with [ɾ]. But she is pronouncing the 'n part as [ən], not [n̩] like many other people do. [ən] and [n̩] are interchangeable in this position (see
                this Wikipedia section for more).



                As for your last question, yes. In North American English, /d(ə)n/ preceded by a vowel as in wouldn't, couldn't, didn't, etc. can be pronounced [dn̩], [dən], or [ɾən]. My impression is that [dn̩] (with a nasal release) is most common, followed by [ɾən] and then [dən]. But there is a fair amount of variation among speakers—and even within a single speaker: you can hear her use [dn̩] here right before the sentence in question—so you probably need not worry so much about it so long as you can produce at least one of the three options.






                share|improve this answer

























                  2












                  2








                  2







                  No, she is using [d], not [ɾ], because you can hear a brief friction ([z]-like sound) after /d/, which doesn't occur with [ɾ]. But she is pronouncing the 'n part as [ən], not [n̩] like many other people do. [ən] and [n̩] are interchangeable in this position (see
                  this Wikipedia section for more).



                  As for your last question, yes. In North American English, /d(ə)n/ preceded by a vowel as in wouldn't, couldn't, didn't, etc. can be pronounced [dn̩], [dən], or [ɾən]. My impression is that [dn̩] (with a nasal release) is most common, followed by [ɾən] and then [dən]. But there is a fair amount of variation among speakers—and even within a single speaker: you can hear her use [dn̩] here right before the sentence in question—so you probably need not worry so much about it so long as you can produce at least one of the three options.






                  share|improve this answer













                  No, she is using [d], not [ɾ], because you can hear a brief friction ([z]-like sound) after /d/, which doesn't occur with [ɾ]. But she is pronouncing the 'n part as [ən], not [n̩] like many other people do. [ən] and [n̩] are interchangeable in this position (see
                  this Wikipedia section for more).



                  As for your last question, yes. In North American English, /d(ə)n/ preceded by a vowel as in wouldn't, couldn't, didn't, etc. can be pronounced [dn̩], [dən], or [ɾən]. My impression is that [dn̩] (with a nasal release) is most common, followed by [ɾən] and then [dən]. But there is a fair amount of variation among speakers—and even within a single speaker: you can hear her use [dn̩] here right before the sentence in question—so you probably need not worry so much about it so long as you can produce at least one of the three options.







                  share|improve this answer












                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer










                  answered 15 hours ago









                  NardogNardog

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