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When can two pronouns being compared in a sentence be of different types?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)I can run faster than _____. (1) him (2) he?When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?“Me being” versus “my being”Gerund preceded by a genitive?When did it become incorrect to use apostrophes with possessive pronouns?Usage of possessive pronouns in subordinate clause or main clause?Should I prefer “my” or “our” when the object (a kid, a house) is “co-owned” by two people both present?What are the best words to describe subjects being compared?She has as much confidence as anybody I have ever knownCorrect usage of possessive personal pronounsCan 'pronouns' be considered ad hoc proper nouns?
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I came across a sentence today -
He resents your being more popular than he is
I always thought that while comparing two pronouns they should always be of the same type, like,
She is taller than he (is)
or
I care for him more than her
I understand that the first sentence that I mentioned is correct but the moment you take out the is in the end, my perception begins to change.
He resents your being more popular than he doesn't sound right to my ears.
Shouldn't this sentence, then, be -
He resents your being more popular than his
What rule is being followed here?
Edit: The question that this one has been marked as a possible duplicate of pertains to gerunds and the usage of possessive pronouns with them while my question is regarding comparison between two possessive pronouns in a sentence. Only the sentence used as example in both the questions is same but the questions asked are entirely different.
pronouns possessives comparison
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
|
show 2 more comments
I came across a sentence today -
He resents your being more popular than he is
I always thought that while comparing two pronouns they should always be of the same type, like,
She is taller than he (is)
or
I care for him more than her
I understand that the first sentence that I mentioned is correct but the moment you take out the is in the end, my perception begins to change.
He resents your being more popular than he doesn't sound right to my ears.
Shouldn't this sentence, then, be -
He resents your being more popular than his
What rule is being followed here?
Edit: The question that this one has been marked as a possible duplicate of pertains to gerunds and the usage of possessive pronouns with them while my question is regarding comparison between two possessive pronouns in a sentence. Only the sentence used as example in both the questions is same but the questions asked are entirely different.
pronouns possessives comparison
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
1
Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner? (where He resents your being more popular than he is is the first example presented by the OP).
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 12:21
@FumbleFingers Yes, that is where I saw the sentence precisely and if you follow the replies and the comments on that page, you will realise that the question asked and the answers given there pertain to a very different topic. I saw the sentence there and checked that not even the best of grammarians there had objected to a separate possible grammatical error in the sentence (as per my knowledge) and so I posted it here as a new question since it falls under a different topic. It isn't a duplicate.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 16:42
Okay, I take your point. But if you'd seriously contemplate saying He resents your being more popular than his, I assume you're a non-native speaker anyway, and should be posting on English Language Learners. But you might note this earlier ELU answer, among other things to think about.
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 16:57
2
@FumbleFingers Oh.. I didn't know that this forum is only for native English speakers. I thought the usage is permitted based on the complexity of the question asked and not on the ethnicity of the person asking it. It does feel extremely odd and discriminatory to me, specially since the forum's name doesn't reflect the same, but I will respect the rules and post the question there. I wouldn't have posted it here in the first place if I knew it in advance. I suggest it be mentioned clearly somewhere.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 18:14
2
Sorry - I didn't express myself very well. It's not that ELU is only for native speakers. But it's not here to teach nns things that practically all native speakers know anyway. Specifically, that we can optionally precede a gerund (being more popular) by a possessive (your) rather than an "accusative" form (him). But if it's then followed by than and an alternative, we can't use a possessive in that position (in your case, it must be either than him or than he is).
– FumbleFingers
May 25 '18 at 12:28
|
show 2 more comments
I came across a sentence today -
He resents your being more popular than he is
I always thought that while comparing two pronouns they should always be of the same type, like,
She is taller than he (is)
or
I care for him more than her
I understand that the first sentence that I mentioned is correct but the moment you take out the is in the end, my perception begins to change.
He resents your being more popular than he doesn't sound right to my ears.
Shouldn't this sentence, then, be -
He resents your being more popular than his
What rule is being followed here?
Edit: The question that this one has been marked as a possible duplicate of pertains to gerunds and the usage of possessive pronouns with them while my question is regarding comparison between two possessive pronouns in a sentence. Only the sentence used as example in both the questions is same but the questions asked are entirely different.
pronouns possessives comparison
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
I came across a sentence today -
He resents your being more popular than he is
I always thought that while comparing two pronouns they should always be of the same type, like,
She is taller than he (is)
or
I care for him more than her
I understand that the first sentence that I mentioned is correct but the moment you take out the is in the end, my perception begins to change.
He resents your being more popular than he doesn't sound right to my ears.
Shouldn't this sentence, then, be -
He resents your being more popular than his
What rule is being followed here?
Edit: The question that this one has been marked as a possible duplicate of pertains to gerunds and the usage of possessive pronouns with them while my question is regarding comparison between two possessive pronouns in a sentence. Only the sentence used as example in both the questions is same but the questions asked are entirely different.
pronouns possessives comparison
pronouns possessives comparison
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
edited May 24 '18 at 16:49
user18593
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
asked May 24 '18 at 11:47
user18593user18593
62
62
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
1
Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner? (where He resents your being more popular than he is is the first example presented by the OP).
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 12:21
@FumbleFingers Yes, that is where I saw the sentence precisely and if you follow the replies and the comments on that page, you will realise that the question asked and the answers given there pertain to a very different topic. I saw the sentence there and checked that not even the best of grammarians there had objected to a separate possible grammatical error in the sentence (as per my knowledge) and so I posted it here as a new question since it falls under a different topic. It isn't a duplicate.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 16:42
Okay, I take your point. But if you'd seriously contemplate saying He resents your being more popular than his, I assume you're a non-native speaker anyway, and should be posting on English Language Learners. But you might note this earlier ELU answer, among other things to think about.
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 16:57
2
@FumbleFingers Oh.. I didn't know that this forum is only for native English speakers. I thought the usage is permitted based on the complexity of the question asked and not on the ethnicity of the person asking it. It does feel extremely odd and discriminatory to me, specially since the forum's name doesn't reflect the same, but I will respect the rules and post the question there. I wouldn't have posted it here in the first place if I knew it in advance. I suggest it be mentioned clearly somewhere.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 18:14
2
Sorry - I didn't express myself very well. It's not that ELU is only for native speakers. But it's not here to teach nns things that practically all native speakers know anyway. Specifically, that we can optionally precede a gerund (being more popular) by a possessive (your) rather than an "accusative" form (him). But if it's then followed by than and an alternative, we can't use a possessive in that position (in your case, it must be either than him or than he is).
– FumbleFingers
May 25 '18 at 12:28
|
show 2 more comments
1
Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner? (where He resents your being more popular than he is is the first example presented by the OP).
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 12:21
@FumbleFingers Yes, that is where I saw the sentence precisely and if you follow the replies and the comments on that page, you will realise that the question asked and the answers given there pertain to a very different topic. I saw the sentence there and checked that not even the best of grammarians there had objected to a separate possible grammatical error in the sentence (as per my knowledge) and so I posted it here as a new question since it falls under a different topic. It isn't a duplicate.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 16:42
Okay, I take your point. But if you'd seriously contemplate saying He resents your being more popular than his, I assume you're a non-native speaker anyway, and should be posting on English Language Learners. But you might note this earlier ELU answer, among other things to think about.
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 16:57
2
@FumbleFingers Oh.. I didn't know that this forum is only for native English speakers. I thought the usage is permitted based on the complexity of the question asked and not on the ethnicity of the person asking it. It does feel extremely odd and discriminatory to me, specially since the forum's name doesn't reflect the same, but I will respect the rules and post the question there. I wouldn't have posted it here in the first place if I knew it in advance. I suggest it be mentioned clearly somewhere.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 18:14
2
Sorry - I didn't express myself very well. It's not that ELU is only for native speakers. But it's not here to teach nns things that practically all native speakers know anyway. Specifically, that we can optionally precede a gerund (being more popular) by a possessive (your) rather than an "accusative" form (him). But if it's then followed by than and an alternative, we can't use a possessive in that position (in your case, it must be either than him or than he is).
– FumbleFingers
May 25 '18 at 12:28
1
1
Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner? (where He resents your being more popular than he is is the first example presented by the OP).
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 12:21
Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner? (where He resents your being more popular than he is is the first example presented by the OP).
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 12:21
@FumbleFingers Yes, that is where I saw the sentence precisely and if you follow the replies and the comments on that page, you will realise that the question asked and the answers given there pertain to a very different topic. I saw the sentence there and checked that not even the best of grammarians there had objected to a separate possible grammatical error in the sentence (as per my knowledge) and so I posted it here as a new question since it falls under a different topic. It isn't a duplicate.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 16:42
@FumbleFingers Yes, that is where I saw the sentence precisely and if you follow the replies and the comments on that page, you will realise that the question asked and the answers given there pertain to a very different topic. I saw the sentence there and checked that not even the best of grammarians there had objected to a separate possible grammatical error in the sentence (as per my knowledge) and so I posted it here as a new question since it falls under a different topic. It isn't a duplicate.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 16:42
Okay, I take your point. But if you'd seriously contemplate saying He resents your being more popular than his, I assume you're a non-native speaker anyway, and should be posting on English Language Learners. But you might note this earlier ELU answer, among other things to think about.
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 16:57
Okay, I take your point. But if you'd seriously contemplate saying He resents your being more popular than his, I assume you're a non-native speaker anyway, and should be posting on English Language Learners. But you might note this earlier ELU answer, among other things to think about.
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 16:57
2
2
@FumbleFingers Oh.. I didn't know that this forum is only for native English speakers. I thought the usage is permitted based on the complexity of the question asked and not on the ethnicity of the person asking it. It does feel extremely odd and discriminatory to me, specially since the forum's name doesn't reflect the same, but I will respect the rules and post the question there. I wouldn't have posted it here in the first place if I knew it in advance. I suggest it be mentioned clearly somewhere.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 18:14
@FumbleFingers Oh.. I didn't know that this forum is only for native English speakers. I thought the usage is permitted based on the complexity of the question asked and not on the ethnicity of the person asking it. It does feel extremely odd and discriminatory to me, specially since the forum's name doesn't reflect the same, but I will respect the rules and post the question there. I wouldn't have posted it here in the first place if I knew it in advance. I suggest it be mentioned clearly somewhere.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 18:14
2
2
Sorry - I didn't express myself very well. It's not that ELU is only for native speakers. But it's not here to teach nns things that practically all native speakers know anyway. Specifically, that we can optionally precede a gerund (being more popular) by a possessive (your) rather than an "accusative" form (him). But if it's then followed by than and an alternative, we can't use a possessive in that position (in your case, it must be either than him or than he is).
– FumbleFingers
May 25 '18 at 12:28
Sorry - I didn't express myself very well. It's not that ELU is only for native speakers. But it's not here to teach nns things that practically all native speakers know anyway. Specifically, that we can optionally precede a gerund (being more popular) by a possessive (your) rather than an "accusative" form (him). But if it's then followed by than and an alternative, we can't use a possessive in that position (in your case, it must be either than him or than he is).
– FumbleFingers
May 25 '18 at 12:28
|
show 2 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
Well, there simply is no rule about needing to matching pronouns/noun phrases in sentences using comparisons "more" or than". I would say the right way to think about the prescription is that you "should" use the proper case for the pronoun in the context of its own clause (or an imaginary clause that it is part of).
For example, consider this sentence: "In the enthusiasm of his passion he thought her more beautiful than she really was" (Consuelo).
There is no error here because the first pronoun takes its case according to its role in the surrounding clause (object—"he thought her") and the second pronoun takes its case according to its role in its own clause (subject—"she really was [beautiful]"—actually, it's not grammatical to explicitly add the word "beautiful" here, but that's the implied structure of the clause).
Similarly, people who prescribe using "he" in "She is taller than he" would as far as I know also prescribe using "he" in a sentence like "It is impossible for her to be taller than he".
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
add a comment |
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Well, there simply is no rule about needing to matching pronouns/noun phrases in sentences using comparisons "more" or than". I would say the right way to think about the prescription is that you "should" use the proper case for the pronoun in the context of its own clause (or an imaginary clause that it is part of).
For example, consider this sentence: "In the enthusiasm of his passion he thought her more beautiful than she really was" (Consuelo).
There is no error here because the first pronoun takes its case according to its role in the surrounding clause (object—"he thought her") and the second pronoun takes its case according to its role in its own clause (subject—"she really was [beautiful]"—actually, it's not grammatical to explicitly add the word "beautiful" here, but that's the implied structure of the clause).
Similarly, people who prescribe using "he" in "She is taller than he" would as far as I know also prescribe using "he" in a sentence like "It is impossible for her to be taller than he".
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
add a comment |
Well, there simply is no rule about needing to matching pronouns/noun phrases in sentences using comparisons "more" or than". I would say the right way to think about the prescription is that you "should" use the proper case for the pronoun in the context of its own clause (or an imaginary clause that it is part of).
For example, consider this sentence: "In the enthusiasm of his passion he thought her more beautiful than she really was" (Consuelo).
There is no error here because the first pronoun takes its case according to its role in the surrounding clause (object—"he thought her") and the second pronoun takes its case according to its role in its own clause (subject—"she really was [beautiful]"—actually, it's not grammatical to explicitly add the word "beautiful" here, but that's the implied structure of the clause).
Similarly, people who prescribe using "he" in "She is taller than he" would as far as I know also prescribe using "he" in a sentence like "It is impossible for her to be taller than he".
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
add a comment |
Well, there simply is no rule about needing to matching pronouns/noun phrases in sentences using comparisons "more" or than". I would say the right way to think about the prescription is that you "should" use the proper case for the pronoun in the context of its own clause (or an imaginary clause that it is part of).
For example, consider this sentence: "In the enthusiasm of his passion he thought her more beautiful than she really was" (Consuelo).
There is no error here because the first pronoun takes its case according to its role in the surrounding clause (object—"he thought her") and the second pronoun takes its case according to its role in its own clause (subject—"she really was [beautiful]"—actually, it's not grammatical to explicitly add the word "beautiful" here, but that's the implied structure of the clause).
Similarly, people who prescribe using "he" in "She is taller than he" would as far as I know also prescribe using "he" in a sentence like "It is impossible for her to be taller than he".
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
Well, there simply is no rule about needing to matching pronouns/noun phrases in sentences using comparisons "more" or than". I would say the right way to think about the prescription is that you "should" use the proper case for the pronoun in the context of its own clause (or an imaginary clause that it is part of).
For example, consider this sentence: "In the enthusiasm of his passion he thought her more beautiful than she really was" (Consuelo).
There is no error here because the first pronoun takes its case according to its role in the surrounding clause (object—"he thought her") and the second pronoun takes its case according to its role in its own clause (subject—"she really was [beautiful]"—actually, it's not grammatical to explicitly add the word "beautiful" here, but that's the implied structure of the clause).
Similarly, people who prescribe using "he" in "She is taller than he" would as far as I know also prescribe using "he" in a sentence like "It is impossible for her to be taller than he".
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
edited May 24 '18 at 12:18
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
answered May 24 '18 at 12:00
sumelicsumelic
50.8k8121228
50.8k8121228
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner? (where He resents your being more popular than he is is the first example presented by the OP).
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 12:21
@FumbleFingers Yes, that is where I saw the sentence precisely and if you follow the replies and the comments on that page, you will realise that the question asked and the answers given there pertain to a very different topic. I saw the sentence there and checked that not even the best of grammarians there had objected to a separate possible grammatical error in the sentence (as per my knowledge) and so I posted it here as a new question since it falls under a different topic. It isn't a duplicate.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 16:42
Okay, I take your point. But if you'd seriously contemplate saying He resents your being more popular than his, I assume you're a non-native speaker anyway, and should be posting on English Language Learners. But you might note this earlier ELU answer, among other things to think about.
– FumbleFingers
May 24 '18 at 16:57
2
@FumbleFingers Oh.. I didn't know that this forum is only for native English speakers. I thought the usage is permitted based on the complexity of the question asked and not on the ethnicity of the person asking it. It does feel extremely odd and discriminatory to me, specially since the forum's name doesn't reflect the same, but I will respect the rules and post the question there. I wouldn't have posted it here in the first place if I knew it in advance. I suggest it be mentioned clearly somewhere.
– user18593
May 24 '18 at 18:14
2
Sorry - I didn't express myself very well. It's not that ELU is only for native speakers. But it's not here to teach nns things that practically all native speakers know anyway. Specifically, that we can optionally precede a gerund (being more popular) by a possessive (your) rather than an "accusative" form (him). But if it's then followed by than and an alternative, we can't use a possessive in that position (in your case, it must be either than him or than he is).
– FumbleFingers
May 25 '18 at 12:28