Subjunctive mood and conditionals confusion Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Past/Present tense in a conditional statementTrouble with second conditionals (with “could”)Conditional Type II and Type IIISubjunctive and conditionalsWhat's the truth about the subjunctive and conditional statements, anyway?the use of “were to” to mean “suppose” or “imagine”If that won't happen, we'll have no choice-ing in conditionalsEnglish Conditionals and “would”Difference between conditional and subjunctive
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Subjunctive mood and conditionals confusion
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Past/Present tense in a conditional statementTrouble with second conditionals (with “could”)Conditional Type II and Type IIISubjunctive and conditionalsWhat's the truth about the subjunctive and conditional statements, anyway?the use of “were to” to mean “suppose” or “imagine”If that won't happen, we'll have no choice-ing in conditionalsEnglish Conditionals and “would”Difference between conditional and subjunctive
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
I know the type 2 conditional where you have to change thhe verb from the if clause to the simple past. However this sentence confuses me.
If it wasn’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the priveleges that we have right now.
From this we know that the main clause is right, since it is on the present continious conditional. Im not sure with the main clause though. They existed, so we cannot use “were”. Please help me.
conditionals subjunctive-mood
add a comment |
I know the type 2 conditional where you have to change thhe verb from the if clause to the simple past. However this sentence confuses me.
If it wasn’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the priveleges that we have right now.
From this we know that the main clause is right, since it is on the present continious conditional. Im not sure with the main clause though. They existed, so we cannot use “were”. Please help me.
conditionals subjunctive-mood
4
If it weren’t for them sounds perfectly good to me.
– iBug
Oct 17 '18 at 4:30
add a comment |
I know the type 2 conditional where you have to change thhe verb from the if clause to the simple past. However this sentence confuses me.
If it wasn’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the priveleges that we have right now.
From this we know that the main clause is right, since it is on the present continious conditional. Im not sure with the main clause though. They existed, so we cannot use “were”. Please help me.
conditionals subjunctive-mood
I know the type 2 conditional where you have to change thhe verb from the if clause to the simple past. However this sentence confuses me.
If it wasn’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the priveleges that we have right now.
From this we know that the main clause is right, since it is on the present continious conditional. Im not sure with the main clause though. They existed, so we cannot use “were”. Please help me.
conditionals subjunctive-mood
conditionals subjunctive-mood
asked Oct 17 '18 at 2:30
NathanNathan
9515
9515
4
If it weren’t for them sounds perfectly good to me.
– iBug
Oct 17 '18 at 4:30
add a comment |
4
If it weren’t for them sounds perfectly good to me.
– iBug
Oct 17 '18 at 4:30
4
4
If it weren’t for them sounds perfectly good to me.
– iBug
Oct 17 '18 at 4:30
If it weren’t for them sounds perfectly good to me.
– iBug
Oct 17 '18 at 4:30
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
It is worth remembering that language in use is a live and varied thing, and the use of 'was' and 'were' varies regionally etc.
For example, where I come from 'was' often forms the singular (I/you/he/she/it was) and 'were' the plural (we/you/they were). This also influences the use of the conditional.
The sense of your sentence comes from recognising that it is a conditional by its use of 'if' and 'would', and the progression of the tenses from past to present, rather than any differences in the use of 'was' and 'were'.
add a comment |
The formal grammatically correct answer would be the following-
If it weren’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the privileges that we have right now
This is because this is one of the few uses of the past subjunctive as per Wikipedia
The only distinct past subjunctive form in English (i.e., form that differs from the corresponding past indicative) is were, which differs when used with a first or third person singular subject (where the indicative form is was).
The main use of the past subjunctive form, were, which is also known
as the irrealis is in counterfactual if clauses
Irrealis is another way of saying counterfactual- that is what is being emphasized is that this WAS and IS NOT in that state.
This being said, this rule only refers only to FORMAL speech because the subjunctive in daily use is dying. Most native speakers would recognize it as being necessary because the so-called "counter-factuality" is already indicated by using if.
Many grammarians wail and gnash teeth for this loss, and try to
explain how important the subjunctive is.** Some explain that the
subjunctive stresses the counterfactual nature of the situation, as
though if you saw “if Alicia was president” in (1), you’d be thinking
“I don’t know Alicia was president!”. Of course no one thinks this,
because the counterfactuality is already established by the use of if.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
It is worth remembering that language in use is a live and varied thing, and the use of 'was' and 'were' varies regionally etc.
For example, where I come from 'was' often forms the singular (I/you/he/she/it was) and 'were' the plural (we/you/they were). This also influences the use of the conditional.
The sense of your sentence comes from recognising that it is a conditional by its use of 'if' and 'would', and the progression of the tenses from past to present, rather than any differences in the use of 'was' and 'were'.
add a comment |
It is worth remembering that language in use is a live and varied thing, and the use of 'was' and 'were' varies regionally etc.
For example, where I come from 'was' often forms the singular (I/you/he/she/it was) and 'were' the plural (we/you/they were). This also influences the use of the conditional.
The sense of your sentence comes from recognising that it is a conditional by its use of 'if' and 'would', and the progression of the tenses from past to present, rather than any differences in the use of 'was' and 'were'.
add a comment |
It is worth remembering that language in use is a live and varied thing, and the use of 'was' and 'were' varies regionally etc.
For example, where I come from 'was' often forms the singular (I/you/he/she/it was) and 'were' the plural (we/you/they were). This also influences the use of the conditional.
The sense of your sentence comes from recognising that it is a conditional by its use of 'if' and 'would', and the progression of the tenses from past to present, rather than any differences in the use of 'was' and 'were'.
It is worth remembering that language in use is a live and varied thing, and the use of 'was' and 'were' varies regionally etc.
For example, where I come from 'was' often forms the singular (I/you/he/she/it was) and 'were' the plural (we/you/they were). This also influences the use of the conditional.
The sense of your sentence comes from recognising that it is a conditional by its use of 'if' and 'would', and the progression of the tenses from past to present, rather than any differences in the use of 'was' and 'were'.
answered Oct 17 '18 at 7:17
Trevor Christopher ButcherTrevor Christopher Butcher
1,562412
1,562412
add a comment |
add a comment |
The formal grammatically correct answer would be the following-
If it weren’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the privileges that we have right now
This is because this is one of the few uses of the past subjunctive as per Wikipedia
The only distinct past subjunctive form in English (i.e., form that differs from the corresponding past indicative) is were, which differs when used with a first or third person singular subject (where the indicative form is was).
The main use of the past subjunctive form, were, which is also known
as the irrealis is in counterfactual if clauses
Irrealis is another way of saying counterfactual- that is what is being emphasized is that this WAS and IS NOT in that state.
This being said, this rule only refers only to FORMAL speech because the subjunctive in daily use is dying. Most native speakers would recognize it as being necessary because the so-called "counter-factuality" is already indicated by using if.
Many grammarians wail and gnash teeth for this loss, and try to
explain how important the subjunctive is.** Some explain that the
subjunctive stresses the counterfactual nature of the situation, as
though if you saw “if Alicia was president” in (1), you’d be thinking
“I don’t know Alicia was president!”. Of course no one thinks this,
because the counterfactuality is already established by the use of if.
add a comment |
The formal grammatically correct answer would be the following-
If it weren’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the privileges that we have right now
This is because this is one of the few uses of the past subjunctive as per Wikipedia
The only distinct past subjunctive form in English (i.e., form that differs from the corresponding past indicative) is were, which differs when used with a first or third person singular subject (where the indicative form is was).
The main use of the past subjunctive form, were, which is also known
as the irrealis is in counterfactual if clauses
Irrealis is another way of saying counterfactual- that is what is being emphasized is that this WAS and IS NOT in that state.
This being said, this rule only refers only to FORMAL speech because the subjunctive in daily use is dying. Most native speakers would recognize it as being necessary because the so-called "counter-factuality" is already indicated by using if.
Many grammarians wail and gnash teeth for this loss, and try to
explain how important the subjunctive is.** Some explain that the
subjunctive stresses the counterfactual nature of the situation, as
though if you saw “if Alicia was president” in (1), you’d be thinking
“I don’t know Alicia was president!”. Of course no one thinks this,
because the counterfactuality is already established by the use of if.
add a comment |
The formal grammatically correct answer would be the following-
If it weren’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the privileges that we have right now
This is because this is one of the few uses of the past subjunctive as per Wikipedia
The only distinct past subjunctive form in English (i.e., form that differs from the corresponding past indicative) is were, which differs when used with a first or third person singular subject (where the indicative form is was).
The main use of the past subjunctive form, were, which is also known
as the irrealis is in counterfactual if clauses
Irrealis is another way of saying counterfactual- that is what is being emphasized is that this WAS and IS NOT in that state.
This being said, this rule only refers only to FORMAL speech because the subjunctive in daily use is dying. Most native speakers would recognize it as being necessary because the so-called "counter-factuality" is already indicated by using if.
Many grammarians wail and gnash teeth for this loss, and try to
explain how important the subjunctive is.** Some explain that the
subjunctive stresses the counterfactual nature of the situation, as
though if you saw “if Alicia was president” in (1), you’d be thinking
“I don’t know Alicia was president!”. Of course no one thinks this,
because the counterfactuality is already established by the use of if.
The formal grammatically correct answer would be the following-
If it weren’t for them, we wouldn’t be enjoying the privileges that we have right now
This is because this is one of the few uses of the past subjunctive as per Wikipedia
The only distinct past subjunctive form in English (i.e., form that differs from the corresponding past indicative) is were, which differs when used with a first or third person singular subject (where the indicative form is was).
The main use of the past subjunctive form, were, which is also known
as the irrealis is in counterfactual if clauses
Irrealis is another way of saying counterfactual- that is what is being emphasized is that this WAS and IS NOT in that state.
This being said, this rule only refers only to FORMAL speech because the subjunctive in daily use is dying. Most native speakers would recognize it as being necessary because the so-called "counter-factuality" is already indicated by using if.
Many grammarians wail and gnash teeth for this loss, and try to
explain how important the subjunctive is.** Some explain that the
subjunctive stresses the counterfactual nature of the situation, as
though if you saw “if Alicia was president” in (1), you’d be thinking
“I don’t know Alicia was president!”. Of course no one thinks this,
because the counterfactuality is already established by the use of if.
answered 6 hours ago
KarlomanioKarlomanio
863311
863311
add a comment |
add a comment |
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4
If it weren’t for them sounds perfectly good to me.
– iBug
Oct 17 '18 at 4:30