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“A government of the people, by the people, for the people”



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InWhen should I use “in” or “on”?Figure of Speech vs. Figure of ThoughtWhat evidence is there that 'to' belongs to any particular part of speech?What can be “in” a mountain?“Inside” vs. “on the inside”Usage of “For” in “How long are you trapped FOR?”Is there a rhetorical term for remarks like “you're exactly what I've come to expect from…”?Are “Referendum” and “Plebiscite” the same in the meaning, or different in the meaning and nuance?Row of the SummerWord for “proportional government based on map area”?



.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2















From a famous speech:




A government of the people, by the people, for the people




I believe the last part is clear (for the people). But what is the difference— in meaning— between of the people (it is a genitive form?) and by the people?



As for the question mark ("it is a genitive form?") I think there is no need to set it inside the parentheses.










share|improve this question






























    2















    From a famous speech:




    A government of the people, by the people, for the people




    I believe the last part is clear (for the people). But what is the difference— in meaning— between of the people (it is a genitive form?) and by the people?



    As for the question mark ("it is a genitive form?") I think there is no need to set it inside the parentheses.










    share|improve this question


























      2












      2








      2








      From a famous speech:




      A government of the people, by the people, for the people




      I believe the last part is clear (for the people). But what is the difference— in meaning— between of the people (it is a genitive form?) and by the people?



      As for the question mark ("it is a genitive form?") I think there is no need to set it inside the parentheses.










      share|improve this question
















      From a famous speech:




      A government of the people, by the people, for the people




      I believe the last part is clear (for the people). But what is the difference— in meaning— between of the people (it is a genitive form?) and by the people?



      As for the question mark ("it is a genitive form?") I think there is no need to set it inside the parentheses.







      prepositions figures-of-speech politics






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Jan 6 '16 at 16:10







      Rock

















      asked Jan 6 '16 at 15:04









      RockRock

      22117




      22117




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5














          "Of the people" refers to the government's composition. It's referring to the fact that the government is made up of people who come from the people.



          "By the people" refers to who chooses those people who make up the government.



          Essentially, it's saying that it's a government comprised of common people who were chosen by common people.






          share|improve this answer


















          • 1





            Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

            – Michael Broughton
            Jan 6 '16 at 15:51











          • So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

            – Rock
            Jan 6 '16 at 15:54






          • 2





            Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

            – Benjamin Harman
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:11












          • I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

            – DJClayworth
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:16






          • 1





            @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

            – Rock
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:34


















          2














          Of the people refers to the government's target, indicating what is governed.



          Of the people is not really necessary, but emphasizes the rest of the sentence.



          [B]y the people indicates that government was designated by the people. It refers to democracy.



          [F]or the people indicates that the objective of the government is to improve common welfare.






          share|improve this answer

























            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            5














            "Of the people" refers to the government's composition. It's referring to the fact that the government is made up of people who come from the people.



            "By the people" refers to who chooses those people who make up the government.



            Essentially, it's saying that it's a government comprised of common people who were chosen by common people.






            share|improve this answer


















            • 1





              Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

              – Michael Broughton
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:51











            • So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:54






            • 2





              Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

              – Benjamin Harman
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:11












            • I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

              – DJClayworth
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:16






            • 1





              @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:34















            5














            "Of the people" refers to the government's composition. It's referring to the fact that the government is made up of people who come from the people.



            "By the people" refers to who chooses those people who make up the government.



            Essentially, it's saying that it's a government comprised of common people who were chosen by common people.






            share|improve this answer


















            • 1





              Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

              – Michael Broughton
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:51











            • So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:54






            • 2





              Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

              – Benjamin Harman
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:11












            • I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

              – DJClayworth
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:16






            • 1





              @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:34













            5












            5








            5







            "Of the people" refers to the government's composition. It's referring to the fact that the government is made up of people who come from the people.



            "By the people" refers to who chooses those people who make up the government.



            Essentially, it's saying that it's a government comprised of common people who were chosen by common people.






            share|improve this answer













            "Of the people" refers to the government's composition. It's referring to the fact that the government is made up of people who come from the people.



            "By the people" refers to who chooses those people who make up the government.



            Essentially, it's saying that it's a government comprised of common people who were chosen by common people.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Jan 6 '16 at 15:07









            Benjamin HarmanBenjamin Harman

            5,72931740




            5,72931740







            • 1





              Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

              – Michael Broughton
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:51











            • So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:54






            • 2





              Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

              – Benjamin Harman
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:11












            • I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

              – DJClayworth
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:16






            • 1





              @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:34












            • 1





              Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

              – Michael Broughton
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:51











            • So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 15:54






            • 2





              Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

              – Benjamin Harman
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:11












            • I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

              – DJClayworth
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:16






            • 1





              @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

              – Rock
              Jan 6 '16 at 16:34







            1




            1





            Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

            – Michael Broughton
            Jan 6 '16 at 15:51





            Thanks to the Supreme Court's interpretation of the meaning of "person" - it can be equally translated to "Of the lobbyists, by the PACS, for the corporations"... :-P

            – Michael Broughton
            Jan 6 '16 at 15:51













            So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

            – Rock
            Jan 6 '16 at 15:54





            So, 'of the people' refers to government's officials, they may come from all citizen.

            – Rock
            Jan 6 '16 at 15:54




            2




            2





            Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

            – Benjamin Harman
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:11






            Yes, it's pointing to the fact that there is no nobility, no aristocracy, no house of lords, and no king. There is no special class ruling the country that is set apart from common people. As all people are just people, neither commoner nor noble, then all people lead, and by election, any person(s) can govern.

            – Benjamin Harman
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:11














            I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

            – DJClayworth
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:16





            I would disagree slightly in that "government by the people" means that it's "people" (i.e. common people) who are doing the governing (i.e. those in power are common people), and "of the people" means chosen by, and accountable to, the people. So your implications are entirely correct but I think different part of the sentence refer to different things.

            – DJClayworth
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:16




            1




            1





            @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

            – Rock
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:34





            @BenjaminHarman: And 'by the people' means similar: all the citizens have active voting right (as regards government).

            – Rock
            Jan 6 '16 at 16:34













            2














            Of the people refers to the government's target, indicating what is governed.



            Of the people is not really necessary, but emphasizes the rest of the sentence.



            [B]y the people indicates that government was designated by the people. It refers to democracy.



            [F]or the people indicates that the objective of the government is to improve common welfare.






            share|improve this answer





























              2














              Of the people refers to the government's target, indicating what is governed.



              Of the people is not really necessary, but emphasizes the rest of the sentence.



              [B]y the people indicates that government was designated by the people. It refers to democracy.



              [F]or the people indicates that the objective of the government is to improve common welfare.






              share|improve this answer



























                2












                2








                2







                Of the people refers to the government's target, indicating what is governed.



                Of the people is not really necessary, but emphasizes the rest of the sentence.



                [B]y the people indicates that government was designated by the people. It refers to democracy.



                [F]or the people indicates that the objective of the government is to improve common welfare.






                share|improve this answer















                Of the people refers to the government's target, indicating what is governed.



                Of the people is not really necessary, but emphasizes the rest of the sentence.



                [B]y the people indicates that government was designated by the people. It refers to democracy.



                [F]or the people indicates that the objective of the government is to improve common welfare.







                share|improve this answer














                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer








                edited 5 hours ago









                jimm101

                7,42792240




                7,42792240










                answered Jan 6 '16 at 15:30









                GraffitoGraffito

                11.4k11841




                11.4k11841



























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