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Is it really a spelling mistake?
Past simple vs. past perfectQuestion about the phrase “interests me”Are there any other meanings for “belie??”Is this an adverbial complement? “They led me _to believe that there was no danger_.”Is “cant” a spelling or grammar mistake?Confusion between Grammar mistake and spelling mistakeIs this comparative always applicable? as + much + adjective + a/an + noun + asIs it “a grammar mistake” or “a grammatical mistake”Can the given question be a reference to the given riddle? WOULD vs WILL usageHow to split apart the word order in English?
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
I was doing an adverb clause exercise where I was supposed to join two sentences into one. According to the answer key it would be the following:
With it's reputation as a quick thrill, bungee jumping has become a worldwide craze.
Wouldn't it be ITS instead of IT's? Thanks for any help!
grammar
New contributor
add a comment |
I was doing an adverb clause exercise where I was supposed to join two sentences into one. According to the answer key it would be the following:
With it's reputation as a quick thrill, bungee jumping has become a worldwide craze.
Wouldn't it be ITS instead of IT's? Thanks for any help!
grammar
New contributor
2
Yes, it should. That’s a mistake.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
add a comment |
I was doing an adverb clause exercise where I was supposed to join two sentences into one. According to the answer key it would be the following:
With it's reputation as a quick thrill, bungee jumping has become a worldwide craze.
Wouldn't it be ITS instead of IT's? Thanks for any help!
grammar
New contributor
I was doing an adverb clause exercise where I was supposed to join two sentences into one. According to the answer key it would be the following:
With it's reputation as a quick thrill, bungee jumping has become a worldwide craze.
Wouldn't it be ITS instead of IT's? Thanks for any help!
grammar
grammar
New contributor
New contributor
edited 3 hours ago
Mitch
52.5k15105220
52.5k15105220
New contributor
asked 7 hours ago
Alexandre AreiasAlexandre Areias
61
61
New contributor
New contributor
2
Yes, it should. That’s a mistake.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
add a comment |
2
Yes, it should. That’s a mistake.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
2
2
Yes, it should. That’s a mistake.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
Yes, it should. That’s a mistake.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
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"With its reputation as a quick thrill....." would be correct.
"It's " is "It is". "Its " is the possessive adjective which shows possession of the thing "it" refers to.
New contributor
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
add a comment |
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"With its reputation as a quick thrill....." would be correct.
"It's " is "It is". "Its " is the possessive adjective which shows possession of the thing "it" refers to.
New contributor
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
add a comment |
"With its reputation as a quick thrill....." would be correct.
"It's " is "It is". "Its " is the possessive adjective which shows possession of the thing "it" refers to.
New contributor
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
add a comment |
"With its reputation as a quick thrill....." would be correct.
"It's " is "It is". "Its " is the possessive adjective which shows possession of the thing "it" refers to.
New contributor
"With its reputation as a quick thrill....." would be correct.
"It's " is "It is". "Its " is the possessive adjective which shows possession of the thing "it" refers to.
New contributor
edited 4 hours ago
New contributor
answered 5 hours ago
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
453
453
New contributor
New contributor
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
add a comment |
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
It should be noted that at one time (maybe 150 years ago) there was considerable disagreement over this, but finally the "authorities" concluded that, when the possessive form of a pronoun and a contraction would otherwise have the same same representation, it was best to omit the apostrophe in the possessive, to disambiguate. To my knowledge this is the last thing "the authorities" have agreed on in the past 100 years.
– Hot Licks
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Alexandre Areias is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Alexandre Areias is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Alexandre Areias is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Alexandre Areias is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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2
Yes, it should. That’s a mistake.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago