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Can a sentence(independente clause) cotain both an indirect object and an objective complement?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Future tense in both main clause and subordinate clauseA rhetorical question which the author then answersThe doctrine I believed “to be” or “is” or “was” right“With what” question!What is the name for the 'object' of a middle voice?The predicate nominative and the predicate adjective is to subjective complements as the ___ and the ___ is to objective complementsCan I use thus or hence in this sentence?How to write English without assumptions and/or shortcuts?Whom and who in the same sentenceConfusing syntax in sentences with indirect object complements



.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








-1















Due to the way objective complements appear, their verbs usually give a name or a property to the DO, so it wouldn't be possible for it to have IOs because it will be senseless to ask "to whom, to what" in the sentence, right?










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    -1















    Due to the way objective complements appear, their verbs usually give a name or a property to the DO, so it wouldn't be possible for it to have IOs because it will be senseless to ask "to whom, to what" in the sentence, right?










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      -1












      -1








      -1








      Due to the way objective complements appear, their verbs usually give a name or a property to the DO, so it wouldn't be possible for it to have IOs because it will be senseless to ask "to whom, to what" in the sentence, right?










      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      Edwin Lester Solis Fuentes is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      Due to the way objective complements appear, their verbs usually give a name or a property to the DO, so it wouldn't be possible for it to have IOs because it will be senseless to ask "to whom, to what" in the sentence, right?







      grammar grammatical-structure






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      asked 2 hours ago









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