Breakfast has been over Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?How can I reliably and accurately identify the passive voice in writing or speech?Difference between “each” and “every”What are the differences between “has” vs “has been”?He has been banned or He is bannedQuestions about “get” vs. “was given” and the Passive Voicea question about passive voice grammarWhat is the difference between hand it over to and hand it toDifference between “was already” and “has already been”“is” vs “has __ been”Have been vs. wereI've had vs I've been having (+ I've been vs I've)
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Breakfast has been over
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?How can I reliably and accurately identify the passive voice in writing or speech?Difference between “each” and “every”What are the differences between “has” vs “has been”?He has been banned or He is bannedQuestions about “get” vs. “was given” and the Passive Voicea question about passive voice grammarWhat is the difference between hand it over to and hand it toDifference between “was already” and “has already been”“is” vs “has __ been”Have been vs. wereI've had vs I've been having (+ I've been vs I've)
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
5 hours ago
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
5 hours ago
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
5 hours ago
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
4 hours ago
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
4 hours ago
add a comment |
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
What is the difference between the following two sentences.
Breakfast is over.
Breakfast has been over.
What does has been mean in the second sentence, is it in passive voice.
differences
differences
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
asked 5 hours ago
Kshitij SinghKshitij Singh
1011
1011
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
5 hours ago
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
5 hours ago
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
5 hours ago
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
4 hours ago
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
4 hours ago
add a comment |
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
5 hours ago
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
5 hours ago
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
5 hours ago
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
4 hours ago
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
4 hours ago
6
6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
5 hours ago
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
5 hours ago
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
5 hours ago
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
5 hours ago
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
5 hours ago
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
5 hours ago
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
4 hours ago
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
4 hours ago
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
4 hours ago
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
4 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
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"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
add a comment |
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"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
add a comment |
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
add a comment |
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
"is" is the copula to be. Just know that in language "copulas" link things together, and the etymology comes from Latin for "to link" (think couple).
Breakfast <--link--> over.
Breakfast's over.
The only time you would modify a sentence to a fairly complex construction like the perfect tense is if you want to highlight that difference between the default and the constructed. The present perfect is used when "generally denoting something that took place prior to the present moment." Or in this case, that breakfast is simply over, versus that the time [tense!] since breakfast "became" over, which the speaker asserts was with certainty in the past.
Breakfast <-- link that occurred some time in the past --> over.
The "has" is there as the conjugated form of the helper verb "to have", and does not hold any semantic value beyond that function, I would say.
No, it is not in any specific voice (technically it is active, but not really).
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
answered 4 hours ago
CarlyCarly
1,586213
1,586213
add a comment |
add a comment |
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Kshitij Singh is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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6
The first sentence is normal. The second requires more context. The perfect requires two time references, one after the other. So use of the perfect construction means that some time must have elapsed since the end of breakfast and now, and that that is significant (otherwise, why use the perfect?) So Breakfast has been over for hours or Breakfast has been over since 9 am would make sense, but not just *Breakfast has been over.
– John Lawler
5 hours ago
Possible duplicate of How do the tenses and aspects in English correspond temporally to one another?
– choster
5 hours ago
@john I just looked up its meaning and found over is used here as adverb, but what type of adverb it is.
– Kshitij Singh
5 hours ago
@JohnLawler i would say that it does not need 2 time frames but it certainly implies that there are 2 events at hand, and that breakfast is over. Which it is
– Carly
4 hours ago
Compulsory reading: "How to identify the passive voice"
– RegDwigнt♦
4 hours ago