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Abolition vs. Abolishment



Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraDifference between “devotement” and “devotion”What is the difference between a “singular noun” and a “plural noun treated as singular”?Why are “scaring” and “scarring” confused by some dictionaries?Forming occupational nouns: Why do you say “butcher” and not “butchian” or “butchor”?Grumbling vs Grumble (as nouns)Is “programming” not a noun?Why do nouns and verbs which are stressed differently all exhibit the same variation?Stress pattern changes with noun and verb homographs: exceptions to the ruleSystems Manager — noun as adjectiveTwo-word verbs described with One-word nouns



.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








15















At times I have caught myself writing the noun form of abolish as "abolishment" and then pausing before realizing it should really be "abolition". Even as I type my spellchecker tells me that "abolishment" is wrong, but I know it isn't, it's just rarely used. The website grammarist has this to say




Abolishment vs. abolition
Abolishment appears in many dictionaries and is not considered incorrect, but abolition is preferred in all modern varieties of English. Both nouns mean the act of doing away with something, and neither has any meanings it does not share with the other.



Both words date from the early 16th century (soon after abolish came
to English from French roots), but abolition has always been more
common, and it now appears about ten times as often as abolishment.
Some writers reserve abolishment for senses unrelated to slavery, but
the distinction is unnecessary.




Nevertheless, I would like to know why the most common noun form is abolition. If I look at other verbs ending -ish it seems that the suffix -ment is preferred to make nouns.




  • abolish+ -ment (rare)


  • accomplish+ -ment


  • astonish+ -ment


  • banish+ -ment


  • establish+ -ment


  • demolish+ -ment (but that's considered archaic)


  • malnourish+ -ment


  • vanish + -ment

Curiously, Oxford Online Dictionaries lists only the noun abolishment in its entry for abolish, although it does have a separate entry for abolition. Is there a reason for this?



  • Why was/is the term abolition preferred to abolishment?

  • Considering the very many verbs that ending in -ish, why is the noun form abolition?

(I know "why" questions are nigh impossible to answer but I tend to see patterns and aboli+ -tion appears to be an exception)










share|improve this question



















  • 1





    Note: ablution is a whole nother word entirely ;)

    – curiousdannii
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:26






  • 1





    And now demolition and abolition have the same forms, making abolition not quite as exceptional. (as is admonition v admonishment).

    – Frank
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:30







  • 2





    @frank well post an answer. The abolition and abolishment conundrum has always bothered me a little. Good find with admonish!

    – Mari-Lou A
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:37






  • 1





    In general, "-tion" is the fact of it; -ment is the act of it. HTH. Abolish-(x) is no exception or special case. Please redirect the research towards usage and progressively understanding the differences in meaning. Oxford is right in listing abolishment as a derivation from and subsidiary of abolish, while providing an independent entry for abolition.

    – Kris
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:07







  • 1





    Well, words aren't invented/selected for non-native speakers.

    – Hot Licks
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:16

















15















At times I have caught myself writing the noun form of abolish as "abolishment" and then pausing before realizing it should really be "abolition". Even as I type my spellchecker tells me that "abolishment" is wrong, but I know it isn't, it's just rarely used. The website grammarist has this to say




Abolishment vs. abolition
Abolishment appears in many dictionaries and is not considered incorrect, but abolition is preferred in all modern varieties of English. Both nouns mean the act of doing away with something, and neither has any meanings it does not share with the other.



Both words date from the early 16th century (soon after abolish came
to English from French roots), but abolition has always been more
common, and it now appears about ten times as often as abolishment.
Some writers reserve abolishment for senses unrelated to slavery, but
the distinction is unnecessary.




Nevertheless, I would like to know why the most common noun form is abolition. If I look at other verbs ending -ish it seems that the suffix -ment is preferred to make nouns.




  • abolish+ -ment (rare)


  • accomplish+ -ment


  • astonish+ -ment


  • banish+ -ment


  • establish+ -ment


  • demolish+ -ment (but that's considered archaic)


  • malnourish+ -ment


  • vanish + -ment

Curiously, Oxford Online Dictionaries lists only the noun abolishment in its entry for abolish, although it does have a separate entry for abolition. Is there a reason for this?



  • Why was/is the term abolition preferred to abolishment?

  • Considering the very many verbs that ending in -ish, why is the noun form abolition?

(I know "why" questions are nigh impossible to answer but I tend to see patterns and aboli+ -tion appears to be an exception)










share|improve this question



















  • 1





    Note: ablution is a whole nother word entirely ;)

    – curiousdannii
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:26






  • 1





    And now demolition and abolition have the same forms, making abolition not quite as exceptional. (as is admonition v admonishment).

    – Frank
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:30







  • 2





    @frank well post an answer. The abolition and abolishment conundrum has always bothered me a little. Good find with admonish!

    – Mari-Lou A
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:37






  • 1





    In general, "-tion" is the fact of it; -ment is the act of it. HTH. Abolish-(x) is no exception or special case. Please redirect the research towards usage and progressively understanding the differences in meaning. Oxford is right in listing abolishment as a derivation from and subsidiary of abolish, while providing an independent entry for abolition.

    – Kris
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:07







  • 1





    Well, words aren't invented/selected for non-native speakers.

    – Hot Licks
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:16













15












15








15


5






At times I have caught myself writing the noun form of abolish as "abolishment" and then pausing before realizing it should really be "abolition". Even as I type my spellchecker tells me that "abolishment" is wrong, but I know it isn't, it's just rarely used. The website grammarist has this to say




Abolishment vs. abolition
Abolishment appears in many dictionaries and is not considered incorrect, but abolition is preferred in all modern varieties of English. Both nouns mean the act of doing away with something, and neither has any meanings it does not share with the other.



Both words date from the early 16th century (soon after abolish came
to English from French roots), but abolition has always been more
common, and it now appears about ten times as often as abolishment.
Some writers reserve abolishment for senses unrelated to slavery, but
the distinction is unnecessary.




Nevertheless, I would like to know why the most common noun form is abolition. If I look at other verbs ending -ish it seems that the suffix -ment is preferred to make nouns.




  • abolish+ -ment (rare)


  • accomplish+ -ment


  • astonish+ -ment


  • banish+ -ment


  • establish+ -ment


  • demolish+ -ment (but that's considered archaic)


  • malnourish+ -ment


  • vanish + -ment

Curiously, Oxford Online Dictionaries lists only the noun abolishment in its entry for abolish, although it does have a separate entry for abolition. Is there a reason for this?



  • Why was/is the term abolition preferred to abolishment?

  • Considering the very many verbs that ending in -ish, why is the noun form abolition?

(I know "why" questions are nigh impossible to answer but I tend to see patterns and aboli+ -tion appears to be an exception)










share|improve this question
















At times I have caught myself writing the noun form of abolish as "abolishment" and then pausing before realizing it should really be "abolition". Even as I type my spellchecker tells me that "abolishment" is wrong, but I know it isn't, it's just rarely used. The website grammarist has this to say




Abolishment vs. abolition
Abolishment appears in many dictionaries and is not considered incorrect, but abolition is preferred in all modern varieties of English. Both nouns mean the act of doing away with something, and neither has any meanings it does not share with the other.



Both words date from the early 16th century (soon after abolish came
to English from French roots), but abolition has always been more
common, and it now appears about ten times as often as abolishment.
Some writers reserve abolishment for senses unrelated to slavery, but
the distinction is unnecessary.




Nevertheless, I would like to know why the most common noun form is abolition. If I look at other verbs ending -ish it seems that the suffix -ment is preferred to make nouns.




  • abolish+ -ment (rare)


  • accomplish+ -ment


  • astonish+ -ment


  • banish+ -ment


  • establish+ -ment


  • demolish+ -ment (but that's considered archaic)


  • malnourish+ -ment


  • vanish + -ment

Curiously, Oxford Online Dictionaries lists only the noun abolishment in its entry for abolish, although it does have a separate entry for abolition. Is there a reason for this?



  • Why was/is the term abolition preferred to abolishment?

  • Considering the very many verbs that ending in -ish, why is the noun form abolition?

(I know "why" questions are nigh impossible to answer but I tend to see patterns and aboli+ -tion appears to be an exception)







meaning word-choice nouns suffixes derivational-morphology






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Dec 1 '16 at 6:54









sumelic

51k8121229




51k8121229










asked Mar 11 '15 at 11:12









Mari-Lou AMari-Lou A

63k57226469




63k57226469







  • 1





    Note: ablution is a whole nother word entirely ;)

    – curiousdannii
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:26






  • 1





    And now demolition and abolition have the same forms, making abolition not quite as exceptional. (as is admonition v admonishment).

    – Frank
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:30







  • 2





    @frank well post an answer. The abolition and abolishment conundrum has always bothered me a little. Good find with admonish!

    – Mari-Lou A
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:37






  • 1





    In general, "-tion" is the fact of it; -ment is the act of it. HTH. Abolish-(x) is no exception or special case. Please redirect the research towards usage and progressively understanding the differences in meaning. Oxford is right in listing abolishment as a derivation from and subsidiary of abolish, while providing an independent entry for abolition.

    – Kris
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:07







  • 1





    Well, words aren't invented/selected for non-native speakers.

    – Hot Licks
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:16












  • 1





    Note: ablution is a whole nother word entirely ;)

    – curiousdannii
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:26






  • 1





    And now demolition and abolition have the same forms, making abolition not quite as exceptional. (as is admonition v admonishment).

    – Frank
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:30







  • 2





    @frank well post an answer. The abolition and abolishment conundrum has always bothered me a little. Good find with admonish!

    – Mari-Lou A
    Mar 11 '15 at 11:37






  • 1





    In general, "-tion" is the fact of it; -ment is the act of it. HTH. Abolish-(x) is no exception or special case. Please redirect the research towards usage and progressively understanding the differences in meaning. Oxford is right in listing abolishment as a derivation from and subsidiary of abolish, while providing an independent entry for abolition.

    – Kris
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:07







  • 1





    Well, words aren't invented/selected for non-native speakers.

    – Hot Licks
    Mar 11 '15 at 12:16







1




1





Note: ablution is a whole nother word entirely ;)

– curiousdannii
Mar 11 '15 at 11:26





Note: ablution is a whole nother word entirely ;)

– curiousdannii
Mar 11 '15 at 11:26




1




1





And now demolition and abolition have the same forms, making abolition not quite as exceptional. (as is admonition v admonishment).

– Frank
Mar 11 '15 at 11:30






And now demolition and abolition have the same forms, making abolition not quite as exceptional. (as is admonition v admonishment).

– Frank
Mar 11 '15 at 11:30





2




2





@frank well post an answer. The abolition and abolishment conundrum has always bothered me a little. Good find with admonish!

– Mari-Lou A
Mar 11 '15 at 11:37





@frank well post an answer. The abolition and abolishment conundrum has always bothered me a little. Good find with admonish!

– Mari-Lou A
Mar 11 '15 at 11:37




1




1





In general, "-tion" is the fact of it; -ment is the act of it. HTH. Abolish-(x) is no exception or special case. Please redirect the research towards usage and progressively understanding the differences in meaning. Oxford is right in listing abolishment as a derivation from and subsidiary of abolish, while providing an independent entry for abolition.

– Kris
Mar 11 '15 at 12:07






In general, "-tion" is the fact of it; -ment is the act of it. HTH. Abolish-(x) is no exception or special case. Please redirect the research towards usage and progressively understanding the differences in meaning. Oxford is right in listing abolishment as a derivation from and subsidiary of abolish, while providing an independent entry for abolition.

– Kris
Mar 11 '15 at 12:07





1




1





Well, words aren't invented/selected for non-native speakers.

– Hot Licks
Mar 11 '15 at 12:16





Well, words aren't invented/selected for non-native speakers.

– Hot Licks
Mar 11 '15 at 12:16










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















11














It is most likely that "abolition" is the more common form due in large part to its association with the "abolition movement".



France was one of the earlier countries to abolish slavery within its borders, and Société des amis des Noirs was one active group in the movement in France.



The picture on that web page refers to (pardon my French) L'Assemblée Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs and is dated 1790. Clearly "abolition" was the preferred term in France, and that preference would have transferred to England.



Adresse A Assemblee Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs



Further, those advocating abolition in England and the US were "abolitionists". It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".



The main reason one might choose "abolishment" over "abolition" (aside from the subtle difference in meaning) is that "abolition" is associated with the movement to end slavery, and thus might be confusing or distracting when used to refer to a different process. But this confusion is not likely in native English speakers, unless the context contributes to the confusion.






share|improve this answer

























  • +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

    – Non-native
    Mar 11 '15 at 20:43


















6














According to The New Fowler Modern English Usage -




"abolishment and abolition" both entered the language in the 16c. For
two centuries they coexisted as synonyms (used of sins, faith, guilt,
and other abstract concepts) with approximately equal currency.



The choice of abolition by those working for the abandonment, first of
slavery, and then of capital punishment, ensured the relative
supremacy of this member of the pair.




According to
French Anti-Slavery: The Movement for the Abolition of Slavery in France, 1802–1848, by Lawrence C. Jennings,




The first French abolitionist movement centered around the Société des Amis des Noirs. Founded in early 1788 by the journalist Jacques Pierre Brissot and his associate Etienne Clavière, with the close collaboration of Count Honoré de Mirabeau, the Amis des Noirs was inspired by the humanitarianism and egalitarian currents of thought implicit in the eighteenth-century Enlightenment. It was also profoundly influenced from the moment of its inception by the British precedent. The Amis des Noirs was modeled upon the London Society for the Abolition of the Slave Trade, which had been formed in May 1787.




(p. 1)



Contextual needs, however, still leave room for abolishment to be used with fair frequency.





  • He rewrote things to reflect this, now calling for the "abolishment of politics".




    ("Sex-Pol: Essays, 1929-1934 by Wilhelm Reich – review", Christopher Turner, The Guardian, May 1, 2013.)





  • It's like calling for the abolishment of pedestrian crossings because some people skip red lights.




    ("Theatre bloggers must leave previews alone", Matt Trueman, The Guardian, Feb 10, 2011.)





  • But its abolishment “doesn't remove moral and ethical responsibility,” they said in a joint statement.




    ("Adultery Is No Longer an Affair of the State in South Korea", Choe Sang-Hun, The New York Times, Feb 26, 2015.)





  • As a nation, abolishment of slavery was and is an important milestone in our history.




    ("Ramadan, Day 12: Sex Slavery and Objectification of Women", Sohaib N. Sultan, Time, July 9, 2014.)







share|improve this answer




















  • 2





    All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

    – Lightness Races in Orbit
    Mar 11 '15 at 13:49


















1














The noun abolition is a "learned" form that is essentially identical in construction to the Latin noun abolitio. For many of the other -ish verbs that you mention, there is no corresponding Latin noun ending in -itio, so a form in -ition would have to be created within English by analogy—something that I think learned individuals would have been reluctant to do in many time periods.



For example, accomplish comes from the Old French verb acumplir/acomplir (modern French accomplir), but in Classical Latin there is no attested verb with the form *accomplire. The related verb complere is attested in Classical Latin, and is the source of the English noun completion.



The verb astonish seems to be of uncertain origin, but it seems clear that there is no Latin verb *astonire that could serve as a source for a Latin noun *astonitio.



The verb nourish is from the Latin verb nutrire, whence the related noun nutrition. But French sound changes may have somewhat obscured the etymological connection between the words nourish and nutrition.



The verb vanish is related to the Latin verb evanescere, which is the source of the noun evanescence.






share|improve this answer






























    0














    Another one I have seen recently is "diminishment", as opposed to diminution.






    share|improve this answer








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      4 Answers
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      4 Answers
      4






      active

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      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

      votes









      11














      It is most likely that "abolition" is the more common form due in large part to its association with the "abolition movement".



      France was one of the earlier countries to abolish slavery within its borders, and Société des amis des Noirs was one active group in the movement in France.



      The picture on that web page refers to (pardon my French) L'Assemblée Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs and is dated 1790. Clearly "abolition" was the preferred term in France, and that preference would have transferred to England.



      Adresse A Assemblee Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs



      Further, those advocating abolition in England and the US were "abolitionists". It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".



      The main reason one might choose "abolishment" over "abolition" (aside from the subtle difference in meaning) is that "abolition" is associated with the movement to end slavery, and thus might be confusing or distracting when used to refer to a different process. But this confusion is not likely in native English speakers, unless the context contributes to the confusion.






      share|improve this answer

























      • +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

        – Non-native
        Mar 11 '15 at 20:43















      11














      It is most likely that "abolition" is the more common form due in large part to its association with the "abolition movement".



      France was one of the earlier countries to abolish slavery within its borders, and Société des amis des Noirs was one active group in the movement in France.



      The picture on that web page refers to (pardon my French) L'Assemblée Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs and is dated 1790. Clearly "abolition" was the preferred term in France, and that preference would have transferred to England.



      Adresse A Assemblee Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs



      Further, those advocating abolition in England and the US were "abolitionists". It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".



      The main reason one might choose "abolishment" over "abolition" (aside from the subtle difference in meaning) is that "abolition" is associated with the movement to end slavery, and thus might be confusing or distracting when used to refer to a different process. But this confusion is not likely in native English speakers, unless the context contributes to the confusion.






      share|improve this answer

























      • +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

        – Non-native
        Mar 11 '15 at 20:43













      11












      11








      11







      It is most likely that "abolition" is the more common form due in large part to its association with the "abolition movement".



      France was one of the earlier countries to abolish slavery within its borders, and Société des amis des Noirs was one active group in the movement in France.



      The picture on that web page refers to (pardon my French) L'Assemblée Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs and is dated 1790. Clearly "abolition" was the preferred term in France, and that preference would have transferred to England.



      Adresse A Assemblee Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs



      Further, those advocating abolition in England and the US were "abolitionists". It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".



      The main reason one might choose "abolishment" over "abolition" (aside from the subtle difference in meaning) is that "abolition" is associated with the movement to end slavery, and thus might be confusing or distracting when used to refer to a different process. But this confusion is not likely in native English speakers, unless the context contributes to the confusion.






      share|improve this answer















      It is most likely that "abolition" is the more common form due in large part to its association with the "abolition movement".



      France was one of the earlier countries to abolish slavery within its borders, and Société des amis des Noirs was one active group in the movement in France.



      The picture on that web page refers to (pardon my French) L'Assemblée Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs and is dated 1790. Clearly "abolition" was the preferred term in France, and that preference would have transferred to England.



      Adresse A Assemblee Nationale pour L'Abolition de la Traite des Noirs



      Further, those advocating abolition in England and the US were "abolitionists". It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".



      The main reason one might choose "abolishment" over "abolition" (aside from the subtle difference in meaning) is that "abolition" is associated with the movement to end slavery, and thus might be confusing or distracting when used to refer to a different process. But this confusion is not likely in native English speakers, unless the context contributes to the confusion.







      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited Mar 11 '15 at 17:42

























      answered Mar 11 '15 at 12:39









      Hot LicksHot Licks

      19.8k23778




      19.8k23778












      • +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

        – Non-native
        Mar 11 '15 at 20:43

















      • +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

        – Non-native
        Mar 11 '15 at 20:43
















      +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

      – Non-native
      Mar 11 '15 at 20:43





      +1, for the nuance- It would have been a mouthfull to call them "abolishmentists".

      – Non-native
      Mar 11 '15 at 20:43













      6














      According to The New Fowler Modern English Usage -




      "abolishment and abolition" both entered the language in the 16c. For
      two centuries they coexisted as synonyms (used of sins, faith, guilt,
      and other abstract concepts) with approximately equal currency.



      The choice of abolition by those working for the abandonment, first of
      slavery, and then of capital punishment, ensured the relative
      supremacy of this member of the pair.




      According to
      French Anti-Slavery: The Movement for the Abolition of Slavery in France, 1802–1848, by Lawrence C. Jennings,




      The first French abolitionist movement centered around the Société des Amis des Noirs. Founded in early 1788 by the journalist Jacques Pierre Brissot and his associate Etienne Clavière, with the close collaboration of Count Honoré de Mirabeau, the Amis des Noirs was inspired by the humanitarianism and egalitarian currents of thought implicit in the eighteenth-century Enlightenment. It was also profoundly influenced from the moment of its inception by the British precedent. The Amis des Noirs was modeled upon the London Society for the Abolition of the Slave Trade, which had been formed in May 1787.




      (p. 1)



      Contextual needs, however, still leave room for abolishment to be used with fair frequency.





      • He rewrote things to reflect this, now calling for the "abolishment of politics".




        ("Sex-Pol: Essays, 1929-1934 by Wilhelm Reich – review", Christopher Turner, The Guardian, May 1, 2013.)





      • It's like calling for the abolishment of pedestrian crossings because some people skip red lights.




        ("Theatre bloggers must leave previews alone", Matt Trueman, The Guardian, Feb 10, 2011.)





      • But its abolishment “doesn't remove moral and ethical responsibility,” they said in a joint statement.




        ("Adultery Is No Longer an Affair of the State in South Korea", Choe Sang-Hun, The New York Times, Feb 26, 2015.)





      • As a nation, abolishment of slavery was and is an important milestone in our history.




        ("Ramadan, Day 12: Sex Slavery and Objectification of Women", Sohaib N. Sultan, Time, July 9, 2014.)







      share|improve this answer




















      • 2





        All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

        – Lightness Races in Orbit
        Mar 11 '15 at 13:49















      6














      According to The New Fowler Modern English Usage -




      "abolishment and abolition" both entered the language in the 16c. For
      two centuries they coexisted as synonyms (used of sins, faith, guilt,
      and other abstract concepts) with approximately equal currency.



      The choice of abolition by those working for the abandonment, first of
      slavery, and then of capital punishment, ensured the relative
      supremacy of this member of the pair.




      According to
      French Anti-Slavery: The Movement for the Abolition of Slavery in France, 1802–1848, by Lawrence C. Jennings,




      The first French abolitionist movement centered around the Société des Amis des Noirs. Founded in early 1788 by the journalist Jacques Pierre Brissot and his associate Etienne Clavière, with the close collaboration of Count Honoré de Mirabeau, the Amis des Noirs was inspired by the humanitarianism and egalitarian currents of thought implicit in the eighteenth-century Enlightenment. It was also profoundly influenced from the moment of its inception by the British precedent. The Amis des Noirs was modeled upon the London Society for the Abolition of the Slave Trade, which had been formed in May 1787.




      (p. 1)



      Contextual needs, however, still leave room for abolishment to be used with fair frequency.





      • He rewrote things to reflect this, now calling for the "abolishment of politics".




        ("Sex-Pol: Essays, 1929-1934 by Wilhelm Reich – review", Christopher Turner, The Guardian, May 1, 2013.)





      • It's like calling for the abolishment of pedestrian crossings because some people skip red lights.




        ("Theatre bloggers must leave previews alone", Matt Trueman, The Guardian, Feb 10, 2011.)





      • But its abolishment “doesn't remove moral and ethical responsibility,” they said in a joint statement.




        ("Adultery Is No Longer an Affair of the State in South Korea", Choe Sang-Hun, The New York Times, Feb 26, 2015.)





      • As a nation, abolishment of slavery was and is an important milestone in our history.




        ("Ramadan, Day 12: Sex Slavery and Objectification of Women", Sohaib N. Sultan, Time, July 9, 2014.)







      share|improve this answer




















      • 2





        All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

        – Lightness Races in Orbit
        Mar 11 '15 at 13:49













      6












      6








      6







      According to The New Fowler Modern English Usage -




      "abolishment and abolition" both entered the language in the 16c. For
      two centuries they coexisted as synonyms (used of sins, faith, guilt,
      and other abstract concepts) with approximately equal currency.



      The choice of abolition by those working for the abandonment, first of
      slavery, and then of capital punishment, ensured the relative
      supremacy of this member of the pair.




      According to
      French Anti-Slavery: The Movement for the Abolition of Slavery in France, 1802–1848, by Lawrence C. Jennings,




      The first French abolitionist movement centered around the Société des Amis des Noirs. Founded in early 1788 by the journalist Jacques Pierre Brissot and his associate Etienne Clavière, with the close collaboration of Count Honoré de Mirabeau, the Amis des Noirs was inspired by the humanitarianism and egalitarian currents of thought implicit in the eighteenth-century Enlightenment. It was also profoundly influenced from the moment of its inception by the British precedent. The Amis des Noirs was modeled upon the London Society for the Abolition of the Slave Trade, which had been formed in May 1787.




      (p. 1)



      Contextual needs, however, still leave room for abolishment to be used with fair frequency.





      • He rewrote things to reflect this, now calling for the "abolishment of politics".




        ("Sex-Pol: Essays, 1929-1934 by Wilhelm Reich – review", Christopher Turner, The Guardian, May 1, 2013.)





      • It's like calling for the abolishment of pedestrian crossings because some people skip red lights.




        ("Theatre bloggers must leave previews alone", Matt Trueman, The Guardian, Feb 10, 2011.)





      • But its abolishment “doesn't remove moral and ethical responsibility,” they said in a joint statement.




        ("Adultery Is No Longer an Affair of the State in South Korea", Choe Sang-Hun, The New York Times, Feb 26, 2015.)





      • As a nation, abolishment of slavery was and is an important milestone in our history.




        ("Ramadan, Day 12: Sex Slavery and Objectification of Women", Sohaib N. Sultan, Time, July 9, 2014.)







      share|improve this answer















      According to The New Fowler Modern English Usage -




      "abolishment and abolition" both entered the language in the 16c. For
      two centuries they coexisted as synonyms (used of sins, faith, guilt,
      and other abstract concepts) with approximately equal currency.



      The choice of abolition by those working for the abandonment, first of
      slavery, and then of capital punishment, ensured the relative
      supremacy of this member of the pair.




      According to
      French Anti-Slavery: The Movement for the Abolition of Slavery in France, 1802–1848, by Lawrence C. Jennings,




      The first French abolitionist movement centered around the Société des Amis des Noirs. Founded in early 1788 by the journalist Jacques Pierre Brissot and his associate Etienne Clavière, with the close collaboration of Count Honoré de Mirabeau, the Amis des Noirs was inspired by the humanitarianism and egalitarian currents of thought implicit in the eighteenth-century Enlightenment. It was also profoundly influenced from the moment of its inception by the British precedent. The Amis des Noirs was modeled upon the London Society for the Abolition of the Slave Trade, which had been formed in May 1787.




      (p. 1)



      Contextual needs, however, still leave room for abolishment to be used with fair frequency.





      • He rewrote things to reflect this, now calling for the "abolishment of politics".




        ("Sex-Pol: Essays, 1929-1934 by Wilhelm Reich – review", Christopher Turner, The Guardian, May 1, 2013.)





      • It's like calling for the abolishment of pedestrian crossings because some people skip red lights.




        ("Theatre bloggers must leave previews alone", Matt Trueman, The Guardian, Feb 10, 2011.)





      • But its abolishment “doesn't remove moral and ethical responsibility,” they said in a joint statement.




        ("Adultery Is No Longer an Affair of the State in South Korea", Choe Sang-Hun, The New York Times, Feb 26, 2015.)





      • As a nation, abolishment of slavery was and is an important milestone in our history.




        ("Ramadan, Day 12: Sex Slavery and Objectification of Women", Sohaib N. Sultan, Time, July 9, 2014.)








      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited 2 hours ago









      sumelic

      51k8121229




      51k8121229










      answered Mar 11 '15 at 13:06









      MistiMisti

      13k42458




      13k42458







      • 2





        All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

        – Lightness Races in Orbit
        Mar 11 '15 at 13:49












      • 2





        All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

        – Lightness Races in Orbit
        Mar 11 '15 at 13:49







      2




      2





      All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

      – Lightness Races in Orbit
      Mar 11 '15 at 13:49





      All four of your examples are from USA media. Can you provide a less biased world view?

      – Lightness Races in Orbit
      Mar 11 '15 at 13:49











      1














      The noun abolition is a "learned" form that is essentially identical in construction to the Latin noun abolitio. For many of the other -ish verbs that you mention, there is no corresponding Latin noun ending in -itio, so a form in -ition would have to be created within English by analogy—something that I think learned individuals would have been reluctant to do in many time periods.



      For example, accomplish comes from the Old French verb acumplir/acomplir (modern French accomplir), but in Classical Latin there is no attested verb with the form *accomplire. The related verb complere is attested in Classical Latin, and is the source of the English noun completion.



      The verb astonish seems to be of uncertain origin, but it seems clear that there is no Latin verb *astonire that could serve as a source for a Latin noun *astonitio.



      The verb nourish is from the Latin verb nutrire, whence the related noun nutrition. But French sound changes may have somewhat obscured the etymological connection between the words nourish and nutrition.



      The verb vanish is related to the Latin verb evanescere, which is the source of the noun evanescence.






      share|improve this answer



























        1














        The noun abolition is a "learned" form that is essentially identical in construction to the Latin noun abolitio. For many of the other -ish verbs that you mention, there is no corresponding Latin noun ending in -itio, so a form in -ition would have to be created within English by analogy—something that I think learned individuals would have been reluctant to do in many time periods.



        For example, accomplish comes from the Old French verb acumplir/acomplir (modern French accomplir), but in Classical Latin there is no attested verb with the form *accomplire. The related verb complere is attested in Classical Latin, and is the source of the English noun completion.



        The verb astonish seems to be of uncertain origin, but it seems clear that there is no Latin verb *astonire that could serve as a source for a Latin noun *astonitio.



        The verb nourish is from the Latin verb nutrire, whence the related noun nutrition. But French sound changes may have somewhat obscured the etymological connection between the words nourish and nutrition.



        The verb vanish is related to the Latin verb evanescere, which is the source of the noun evanescence.






        share|improve this answer

























          1












          1








          1







          The noun abolition is a "learned" form that is essentially identical in construction to the Latin noun abolitio. For many of the other -ish verbs that you mention, there is no corresponding Latin noun ending in -itio, so a form in -ition would have to be created within English by analogy—something that I think learned individuals would have been reluctant to do in many time periods.



          For example, accomplish comes from the Old French verb acumplir/acomplir (modern French accomplir), but in Classical Latin there is no attested verb with the form *accomplire. The related verb complere is attested in Classical Latin, and is the source of the English noun completion.



          The verb astonish seems to be of uncertain origin, but it seems clear that there is no Latin verb *astonire that could serve as a source for a Latin noun *astonitio.



          The verb nourish is from the Latin verb nutrire, whence the related noun nutrition. But French sound changes may have somewhat obscured the etymological connection between the words nourish and nutrition.



          The verb vanish is related to the Latin verb evanescere, which is the source of the noun evanescence.






          share|improve this answer













          The noun abolition is a "learned" form that is essentially identical in construction to the Latin noun abolitio. For many of the other -ish verbs that you mention, there is no corresponding Latin noun ending in -itio, so a form in -ition would have to be created within English by analogy—something that I think learned individuals would have been reluctant to do in many time periods.



          For example, accomplish comes from the Old French verb acumplir/acomplir (modern French accomplir), but in Classical Latin there is no attested verb with the form *accomplire. The related verb complere is attested in Classical Latin, and is the source of the English noun completion.



          The verb astonish seems to be of uncertain origin, but it seems clear that there is no Latin verb *astonire that could serve as a source for a Latin noun *astonitio.



          The verb nourish is from the Latin verb nutrire, whence the related noun nutrition. But French sound changes may have somewhat obscured the etymological connection between the words nourish and nutrition.



          The verb vanish is related to the Latin verb evanescere, which is the source of the noun evanescence.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 2 hours ago









          sumelicsumelic

          51k8121229




          51k8121229





















              0














              Another one I have seen recently is "diminishment", as opposed to diminution.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.
























                0














                Another one I have seen recently is "diminishment", as opposed to diminution.






                share|improve this answer








                New contributor




                Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                Check out our Code of Conduct.






















                  0












                  0








                  0







                  Another one I have seen recently is "diminishment", as opposed to diminution.






                  share|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.










                  Another one I have seen recently is "diminishment", as opposed to diminution.







                  share|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.









                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer






                  New contributor




                  Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.









                  answered 4 hours ago









                  Marian NeudelMarian Neudel

                  1




                  1




                  New contributor




                  Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.





                  New contributor





                  Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.






                  Marian Neudel is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.



























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